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I don't know, but it certainly would have nothing to do with why Spaniards pronounce soft c and z with the 'th' sound. If it had something to do with it perhaps they would pronounce the s with a "th" sound. Anyway, how would an entire people come to imitate the speech impediment of a king during a time when a minute fraction of the people would have ever heard the man speak? Furthermore the distinction of the soft c and z from the s has important utilitarian aspects allowing the hearer to know what the speaker means when using words that would otherwise sound the same if spoken in American style Spanish.

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11y ago
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11y ago

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Q: Did the king of Spain have a lisp?
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Has mollie king got a lisp?

There is no public information or reports suggesting that Mollie King has a lisp.


Why do people in Spain have a lisp?

Many people say that this is because there was a Spanish King who had a lisp. So as not to embarrass him, his courtiers spoke with a lisp as well, which in turn led other educated people to speak with a lisp. Because the elites were speaking with a lisp, other less educated people, peasants, etc. all began speaking with a lisp until finally everyone in the country spoke that way in order not to be left out.Unfortunately, that story is just an urban legend. This becomes obvious if you listen carefully to the way Spaniards talk: they pronounce c's and z's with a lisp, or ceceo, but not s's. The difference is just a regional difference, like how English speakers from England tend not to pronounce the r's at the end of words.


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