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Mayan days such as 1 Ahau, 2 imix, 3 ik are not always on the same year date. Don Jhoan Xiu says in 1685ad that the new year was Pop 1 on 5Kan (in 1534) and then Pop 1 6Muluc in 1535. Modern placement of the epoc in 3114bc and its very date demand that this must mean in 1534 the writer noted 1533 had Pop 1 on 5Kan, and in 1535 the writer noted 1534 had Pop 1 on 6Muluc. However, is the new year Pop 0 (zero) yet? The epoc whether 3114bc Aug 11 or 12 or 13 is always claimed as 4Ahau 8 Cumku which means that the day 5Kan falls on Pop 2, not Pop 1, nor Pop 0. So i wondered if as Mayan day can be a different hour than Mayan dates. Can days be sunset and dates be sunrise so that all days occur on two dates? so the accepted sequence is 3ik 0 Pop, then 4Akbal 1 Pop, then 5Kan 2 Pop. But the record says 5Kan 1Pop. There may not have always been a Pop 0 so Pop 1 and 0 can shift it, but how does one shift from Pop 1 to Pop 2. Don Jhoan Xiu's sequence (presuming a date 0 Uayeb) would be 3ik 4Uayeb, 4Akbal 0 Pop, and 5 Kan 1 Pop. So i guess nothing can be resolved until someone can confirm if hours of days began the same hour as hours of date.

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Q: Do Mayan days begin the same hours as Mayan dates?
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