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Consider the following fictional scenario. The Commonwealth passes the Protection against Pregnancy Discrimination Act. This Act requires employers to treat pregnancy the same as any other disability. The NSW Parliament subsequently passes the Pregnant Employees' Leave Act which requires employers to give pregnant employees three months' paid maternity leave. There are no NSW laws requiring employers to provide paid leave to other employees who are temporarily unable to work. An employer channeling's the Pregnant Employees Leave Act (NSW) on the ground that it gives pregnancy preferential treatment and is therefore inconsistent with the Protection against Pregnancy Discrimination Act(Cth). Do you think it is inconsistent? Argue for your view, supporting your answer by reference to relevant feminist theories.

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17y ago

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