No, France did not control any Italian province in 1632.
Seeing as how Yosemite is in California, I'd guess not.
The answer is none. France did not control any part of north America after 1763.
It was called 'Concord' to indicate a feeling of peace. (which does not happen very often between France and England, or indeed between France and any country)
It was called 'Concord' to indicate a feeling of peace. (which does not happen very often between France and England, or indeed between France and any country)
It depends where on the south of England you are. For most of England's south coast, if you travelled due south, you would land in France. However, if you were in Truro - or any point west of there, you would land in Spain.
They have. Example: England and France
England had control over the U.S. before any Eastern countries did. So, England, speaking English, passed the language down. It has always been the official language of U.S. gov't.
When flying from England to PAris you do not fly over any ocea. You fly over the English Channel.
The Channel between England and France is very shallow. It is much less than any sea. Definitely less than one mile if you are using the Channel Tunnel.
There wasn't such thing as getting "more" control over the french colonies. The basic idea was that these new territory would be France from now on.For instance, french Algeria was considered part of France as any other département of France.That is why the breaking up with french colonies was so violent.The UK fought for its colonies too, but not so long.
Its 70 cents for sending a letter to any country in the EU. So, I guess that goes for England too.