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Probably not. If the property had been offered for by the government in satisfaction of a tax lien, the absolute highest bidder would have been the winner (subject to redemption clauses, of course) but if it was a private sale, there may be other factors entering the negotiations that you may not be aware of. If you wish to insitigate a civil suit, you would have be able to prove that the sale was fraudulent or a sham.

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Q: Does a bidder on a mortagee in possession property have any rights when the mortagee in possession or his agent accepts a lower offer for no cogent and valid reason?
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