Generally the buyer pays closing costs. Some closing costs legally MUST be paid by the buyer. However, the seller could offer to pay some costs if they want to, or the buyer could ask the seller to pay some of the closing costs. Ultimately the seller has to decide how badly they want to make the sale.
A purchase order is issued from a buyer to a seller.
layaway
Here in California, it is a matter of local custom. In Southern California, typically the seller agrees to purchase the owners policy for the buyer, the buyer supplies the title insurance for the lender. In Northern California, the buyer typically pays for both policies. It is, however, a matter that is covered in the contract between the seller and buyer and is negotiable, as is everything else. All closing costs can be negotiated as part of the sales contract. Who pays for title insurance varies from state to state based on local custom, but can be negotiated between the buyer and seller as part of the sales contract. There are no laws providing for either party to be required to pay. In the case where the seller has elected to pay title expenses, the buyer needs to make sure that the Lender has approved those fees to be paid by the seller. Some types of mortgages require that the buyer/borrower have a certain amount of funds available for the closing fees and may "cap" what fees can or cannot be paid by the seller in behalf of the buyer.
Buyer is the one who is purchasing the goods from the seller...hence..the buyer must issue a non-operative PB to the seller...and the seller will issue an operative PB to activate the PB.
Generally the buyer pays closing costs. Some closing costs legally MUST be paid by the buyer. However, the seller could offer to pay some costs if they want to, or the buyer could ask the seller to pay some of the closing costs. Ultimately the seller has to decide how badly they want to make the sale.
You do not have to pay for it if you send it back immediately. You cannot keep or consume the item and then refuse to pay for it. This does not apply to the UK. If you have received an item that you had nothing to do with(did not ask for and did not pay for) then this is classed as the fault of the seller and this means the buyer can consume/keep/use without needing to pay for it. The seller will be stealing from any buyer if the seller takes any money from the buyer in these circumstances.
No. The seller must honor the contract.
Well the point for sale and advantages is pretty obvious and simple both for the buyer and seller. If you are a buyer you don't have to pay much and for a seller they get more customers.
The 'buyer' doesn't - but the 'seller' pays a fee for accepting Paypal payments.
Whatever the buyer is willing to pay and the seller willing to accept
The seller. The seller is shipping it to the buyer, not vice versa.
Buyer is a consumer Seller is a Distributor
The seller should pay up to and including the day of closing.
A purchase order is issued from a buyer to a seller.
No!
The seller is called the grantor. The buyer is called the grantee.The seller is called the grantor. The buyer is called the grantee.The seller is called the grantor. The buyer is called the grantee.The seller is called the grantor. The buyer is called the grantee.