no because he is an idiot
There is a contract for a sale but the buyer has not yet been billed.
There is a contract for a sale but the buyer has not yet been billed.
contract of sale of goods 'a contract whereby the seller transfers or agrees to transfer the property in goods to the buyer for a price'A contract of saleis a legal contract an exchange of goods, services or property to be exchanged from seller (or vendor) to buyer (or purchaser) for an agreed upon value in money (or money equivalent) paid or the promise to pay same. It is a specific type of legal contract.NAEEM SHAKIR PIA
Definitely. If the buyer change his/ her decisions or suddenly vanish, one can make an application to the court to cancel the sales contract. The liens will still exist unless you terminate the lien contract by notifying the other party to the contract. Any forms of notification is accepted as long as it is expressively stated in the contract. If you have any further questions, you may contact a lawyer for contract examination
1. In a sale, property in the goods is transferred to the buyer immediately at the time of contract, whereas in hire-purchase, the property in the goods passes to the hirer upon payment of the last installment. 2. In a sale, the position of the buyer is that of the owner of the goods but in hire purchase, the position of the hirer is that of a bailee till he pays the last installment. 3. In the case of a sale, the buyer cannot terminate the contract and is bound to pay the price of the goods. On the other hand, in the case of hire-purchase, the hirer may, if he so likes, terminate the contract by returning the goods to its owner without any liability to pay the remaining installments. 4. In the case of a sale, the seller takes the risk of any loss resulting from the insolvency of the buyer. In the case of hire purchase, the owner takes no such risk, for if the hirer fails to pay an installment, the owner has the right to take back the goods. 5. In the case of a sale, the buyer can pass a good title to a bonafide purchaser from him but in a hire-purchase, the hirer cannot pass any title even to a bonafide purchaser. 6. In a sale, sales tax is levied at the time of the contract whereas in a hire-purchase, sales tax is not leviable until it eventually ripens into a sale (K.L. Johar & Co. vs. Dy. Commercial Tax Officer).
Bilateral Sale is a direct or straightforward contract of sale. It is unalterable so it binds the seller and the buyer.
The contract to sell refers a binding legal agreement between the buyer and sell about the sale of something. The contract to sell is usually enforceable by law.
No. The seller must honor the contract.
AnswerA "sale" is (colloquially) a completed transaction where the only remaining duties of the buyer may be timely rejection after inspection, and the only remaining duty of seller is to honor any express or implied warranty. This assumes the full price was paid during the sale and the goods were delivered, otherwise, the sale is not technically complete.An "agreement to sell" is a contract that envisions (or defines) a future sale, thus all conditions precedent and other terms (delivery, payment, etc), continue to be "executory", that is, are yet to be fully carried out. A breach of this contract could result in a court order of specific performance, or for damages caused by the loss of the opportunity to buy or sell.DIFFERENCE BETWEEN SALE AND AGREEMENT TO SELLTransfer of property (ownership): - In a 'sale' the property in goods passes to the buyer immediately at the time of making the contract In 'an agreement to sell' there is no transfer of property to the buyer at the time of the contract.Risk of loss. The general rule is that unless otherwise agreed, the risk of loss primarily passes with property (Sec. 26). Thus in case of sale, if the goods are destroyed the loss falls on the buyer even though the goods may never have come into his possession because the property in the goods has already passed to the buyer. On the other hand, in case of an agreement to sell where the ownership in the goods is yet to pass from the seller to the buyer, such loss has to be borne by the seller even though the goods are in the possession of the buyer.
No. You should not show a property that is already under contract, unless the contract falls though. Then it is for sale again. http://www.allwholesaleproperties.com
Once you have entered into a valid contract -- the buyer can "assign" ; "substitute" or hand the contract over to somebody else to fulfill the original terms that the original buyer made with the seller. Usually in a Washington state purchase/sale agreement -- there is a clause that specifies the buyer cannot do this (assign) the agreement to somebody else -- without the sellers express permission and/or approval.
A contract for differences is generally a contract between two people or different groups, often seen as one buyer and one seller. Generally stipulating that the seller will pay the difference in a sale.