if im correct your talking about the new world as it was known. the portuguese settled in south america, while the spainards settled in Central America as well as in the west of North America. but the french settled in the high upper hemisphere. however thats not the only difference... you see the new world was very popular because anyone could become a noble, either through gold hunting or beaver hunting. it was simply full of oppertunitys! but the french king and nobles did not share the free land with most anyone, and therefore french settlements failed because simply there wasnt enough space, and to add on to this only cathlics were allowed to go. it was still just like mainland France, why would anyone want to spend thousands of dollars worth just to go and be treated like tresspassers? so most french people who did go there were either nobles, or merchants and traders not willing to settle down and farm, but rather looking to get rich quick and then leave. and therefore, not many settlements were made.
One specific example is that the French were much more apt to interbred with the natives.
French, Italian, Portuguese, and Spanish all evolved from Latin.
spanish, italian, portuguese and french are latin related
spanish established more settlements
What exactly are you talking about? European monarchs were quite different from each other, who are you referring to? And what natives? Europeans went on a colonizing spree across the world between the 15th and 19th centuries, where they came into contact with "natives" from every conceivable part of the world. If you're referring to Spanish, Portuguese, British, French and Dutch colonization of the Americas, the monarchs were partly responsible. As the heads of the kingdoms, vested with virtually all authority and power, it was them who made the decisions to commence with American colonization. At the same time, there were tons of other actors, from explorers to merchants to missionaries who all had a stake and an interest in colonization. The Spanish Crown made the decision to continue to send conquistadors to the Americas, but it wasn't a decision made in a vaccum. It was a combination of personal and political desires that led to colonization.
Latin America, by definition, consists only of countries that speak Romance languages, such as Spanish, Portuguese and French.
Spanish, Portuguese and French.
colonies bought lousiiana from french, spanish colonization ended in 1989
Because that's pretty much the definition of "Latin" America: any country in the Americas that speak a Romance language, such as Spanish, Portuguese, or French.
Because that's pretty much the definition of "Latin" America: any country in the Americas that speak a Romance language, such as Spanish, Portuguese, or French.
French, Italian, Portuguese, and Spanish all evolved from Latin.
French cooperated with the Indians in their colonization, Spanish knew that they needed to include the Indians in their colonization, and the English basically excluded them in general.
The top five languages spoken in South America are: - Spanish - Portuguese - English - French - Netherlander
the English civil war, the whole Spanish armada fiasco, the French and Indian war, generally a progression of the colonization of the Americas.
Spanish, French, and Portuguese are Romance languages, meaning that they all descend from Latin.
Since Mexico was colonized by the Spanish, the statement: "Based on modern demographic information, Mexico was explored by the Portuguese and the French." is false.
Since Mexico was colonized by the Spanish, the statement: "Based on modern demographic information, Mexico was explored by the Portuguese and the French." is false.
The French colonization of the Americas began in the 16th centuryby norma