As the Jews began living in all the European countries.
Judaism had spread to all major regions of Asia including southern Russia, India (Cochin), China (Kaifeng), almost all areas in Europe (aside from Eastern Europe), North Africa and the Mediterranean region.
The way the question is written implies agency. Most of Judaism's spread was based on necessary migrations of Jews from other countries. Judaism spread by way of people moving, not populations converting. Jews spread throughout the Roman Empire, expanded out through much of Europe and also spread to the New World and Australia, before the mass return of Jews to Israel.
the Inquisition was about getting the people of Europe (mostly in Spain and Portugal) to be Catholic again and stop the spread of Judaism and Islam.
Judaism spread fast so equals yes
To wherever Jews went in their exile: Western Asia, Europe, North Africa, and later to America.
Judaism did not spread at all in Rome. The Ancient Romans were hostile to Jewish practice.
It happened gradually, as Jews moved to new areas in Europe, western Asia and the Mediterranean region.
No.
Near East, Middle East, the Mediterranean region, North Africa, southern Europe, western and central Asia.
No..the crusades were intended to capture Jerusalem for Christianity and to oust the Moslems from there. The Jews suffered terribly during the crusades.
Judaism was spread by the repeated expulsion of Jewish people from places where they had lived. Wherever they went, they took their Judaism with them. The people who helped spread Judaism were comprised of those who ever said "We gotta get these $%@#& out of our nerighborhood". Also, to be precise and avoid a misconception that the question may imply . . . Judaism spread geographically, with Jews who migrated geographically. It was never spread by persuasion, because Judaism has never included a proselytizing ethic. That means that Jews do not try to convert people.