The money and goods a person owned.
They required slaves pay ridiculous sums of money, just for the right to buy land.
Not principally. They wanted to stop the creation of any new slave-states.
The northern states didn't have slavery as the southern states did, and they were smaller. They were afraid that if slaves were counted as part of the population that would give the southern states an advantage when they were represented in Congress. In 1790 35% of the population in VA was slave, so that can make a difference in the balance of power between states.
Northern States abolished slavery between 1777 & 1804.
Because they were agricultural, and they needed the slaves to make money. So to them, no money equals no slaves. As for the northern states, they didn't need and didn't like slaves.
The states that make Florida's northern border are southeastern Alabama and southern/southeastern Georgia.
money and goods a person owned
The money and goods a person owned.
They required slaves pay ridiculous sums of money, just for the right to buy land.
After the Mexicans lost the Mexican War, These regions became American territory: (Paid money) California Texas (With Rio Grande as the border) Northern part of New Mexico Northern part of Utah (the southern part of the two states were sold to the US later.)
They were located in the northern states. The south was mainly agriculture.
Capitalism.
Because people would pay pretty good money for the beef (as food - for steaks, etc.) By getting them to the Northern and Eastern states, they made their profits.
The states that make Florida's northern border are southeastern Alabama and southern/southeastern Georgia.
Not principally. They wanted to stop the creation of any new slave-states.
yes, a state can not make their own money