In the case of marital property, the division should have been addressed at the time of the divorce and in the divorce decree. In most jurisdictions, if one spouse was ordered to convey their interest in the marital property as part of the divorce judgment and they didn't execute a deed, the decree can be recorded in the land records and will transfer title.
If the issue of the division of the marital property wasn't brought up at the time of the divorce then you need to obtain a voluntary deed from your ex-wife that transfers her interest to you. She will likely want some monetary consideration in exchange for her deed.
If your ex-wife cannot be found then you must take the matter to a court of equity and petition to have the property titled in your name and her barred from making any future claims.
You and the "someone else" create and sign a new deed for the home that includes the wife's name, and then you record it with the registry (or assessor, or local equivalent).
No, this would not be allowed.
Falsifying a deed to a home where two people are listed one is deceased and his wife is trying to change it to her name
he can take it back <3 all my people i am a lawyer!!
Yes, of course.Yes, of course.Yes, of course.Yes, of course.
No. If the husband is a grantee on their deed then he must sign the deed in lieu of foreclosure. If only the wife signed then the lender would acquire only the wife's interest in the property.No. If the husband is a grantee on their deed then he must sign the deed in lieu of foreclosure. If only the wife signed then the lender would acquire only the wife's interest in the property.No. If the husband is a grantee on their deed then he must sign the deed in lieu of foreclosure. If only the wife signed then the lender would acquire only the wife's interest in the property.No. If the husband is a grantee on their deed then he must sign the deed in lieu of foreclosure. If only the wife signed then the lender would acquire only the wife's interest in the property.
no
That would depend on the wording of the deed. If a deed has as remaindermen the "heirs of his body" or "his issue" then the answer is no. IF the deed states to his "heirs at law" then the answer is yes. You should seek the help of an attorney who will review the language used in the deed.
It depends on the tenancy recited in the deed. If the deed recites that you will hold title as joint tenants with the right of survivorship then husband's interest will automatically pass to wife upon his death.
you can use quit claim deed
If a husband and wife buy a house together and the wife's name is not put on the deed until the second mortgage, yes, the deed is still shared after the second mortgage is paid off.
Your wife must voluntarily sign a deed transferring her interest in the property to you. She may want you to buy her out.Your wife must voluntarily sign a deed transferring her interest in the property to you. She may want you to buy her out.Your wife must voluntarily sign a deed transferring her interest in the property to you. She may want you to buy her out.Your wife must voluntarily sign a deed transferring her interest in the property to you. She may want you to buy her out.