Asked in Ancient HistoryEnglish Spelling and PronunciationBon JoviQuebec
How do you pronounce Godin Tepe?
September 13, 2011 5:59AM
that is of course, 'a' will be pronounced like the same letter in the words Adam for instance, or man etc. almost! why almost? because the corect pronounciation of that letter in Persian has no exact equivalent in English. it is highly inflected in Persian while there is rarely any inflected 'a' in English. or not the same as that in Persian at least. (in ancient Avestan language, probably the oldest form of Persian, there are about 14 different ways of pronounciation as well as written forms of the letter a! god help! :-) today, there are at least 4 different pronounciations of the same letter in Persian.) however, the pronounciation of the word Tepe the way it is being spelled and pronounced here is also correct since different dialects and accents in Iran may well pronounce the same word in different ways.
as for the word Godin though, I'm not really sure since I've never heard nor read it in Persian. i have heard of similar words but I'm not sure if this one is any of those. similar words: Gadan, or maybe even Godan. could as well be Gadin. one has to find out who first pronounced / spelled these two words into English in the way it is now. where s/he got it from. who s/he heard them from first and so forth ... in fact the word might actually be of a totally different origin than that of the Indo-Iranian languages.