Yes normally because the LHS expression equals the RHS expression
The LHS expression = RHS expression
Not normally because its LHS is equal to its RHS
Yes
an equation it signifies something on LHS is equal to RHS
Answer is 411 Logic: You multiply the two numbers in LHS of the equation and reverse the result to form the first two digits of RHS and for the 3rd digit you subtract one from the 2nd number on the LHS of the equation.
Always keep the equation in balance inasmuch that what is done on the RHS must be done on the LHS of the equation.
X - Y = 2 When X = 3 you have 3 - Y = 2 Moving Y to RHS: 3 = Y + 2 Moving 2 to LHS: 1 = Y
It is an equation that shows that the LHS is equal to the RHS by means of an equality sign which is =
When solving equations remember that whatever operations are performed on the LHS of the equation must be performed on its RHS to keep the equation in balance.
first find p(1) n prove dat its lhs n rhs r the same then go the assumption ie,P(k) then asume it to be true n assume it to be true with P(k=1) ,at last dependin on your problem prove that lhs=rhs{tip: dont loose ur hope cuz it distroys evrithin} ;)
From the Pythagorean identity, sin2x = 1-cos2x. LHS = 1/(sinx cosx) - cosx/sinx LHS = 1/(sinx cosx) - (cosx/sinx)(cosx/cosx) LHS = 1/(sinx cosx) - cos2x/(sinx cosx) LHS = (1- cos2x)/(sinx cosx) LHS = sin2x /(sinx cosx) [from Pythagorean identity] LHS = sin2x /(sinx cosx) LHS = sinx/cosx LHS = tanx [by definition] RHS = tanx LHS = RHS and so the identity is proven. Q.E.D.