answersLogoWhite

0


Top Answer
User Avatar
Wiki User
Answered 2015-07-24 20:00:31

Less than you probably think. It is important to recognize that language changes more rapidly in its spoken form than its written one, and that some language changes affect only some dialects. It is also important to know that Shakespeare was writing poetically and so used rhetorical and stylistic devices which would not appear in ordinary speech. It is probably better to examine the plays of authors like Middleton and Jonson (both contemporary with Shakespeare) who tried to make their characters sound like they were speaking naturally. One of the problems of doing so is that they use a certain amount of cant and slang which only ever has a short lifespan: the slang of fifty years ago is equally difficult to understand.Shakespeare used the second person pronouns and their accompanying verb forms a fair bit in his plays. They also are used in the King James Bible which was contemporary. But they are hardly used at all in other contemporary works which suggests that their use was old-fashioned then. They are even more old-fashioned now but are still in use especially in a religious context.The meanings of a number of words has shifted in the last 400 years; I say "shifted" because the older primary meaning has often become subsumed under a newer meaning, but is still present and recognizable as a secondary meaning. Of course, new vocabulary has been devised for new phenomena and vocabulary for older phenomena has fallen into disuse as the phenomena disappear.

001
๐Ÿ™
0
๐Ÿคจ
0
๐Ÿ˜ฎ
0
๐Ÿ˜‚
0
User Avatar

Your Answer

Loading...

Still have questions?

Related Questions

How to explain the idea of English sounds and letters disagree?

The spoken language of English has evolved (and is still evolving) however the written letters of English have not changed since 1634.


How did shakepeare influence the English language?

Shakespeare invented many words, which have since entered the language. And since he is generally the most widely read and performed playwright in the English language of the past 500 years, he has certainly been used as an example and inspiration about how to use English (even though he is by now archaic).


Is the book Ophelia in Shakesperian?

Shakespearean is not a language. Shakespeare wrote in modern English. If this book was written in English since, it was written in modern English, just possibly more modern than Shakespeare's modern English.


When did Shakespeare become famous?

Shakespeare was a well-known playwright during his lifetime, and his plays have only gained more fame since his death. He is still one of the most renowned playwrights in the English language.


Why is William Shakespeare timeless?

Shakespeare wrote over thirty plays, many of which are considered among the best in the history of the theater. He wrote over a hundred and fifty sonnets, among the greatest in the English language. Many words and phrases Shakespeare coined have become household words, a phrase Shakespeare coined. His plays have been in continual revival since they were first produced. He has been translated into almost every language on the planet. He is taught in English, literature, drama, and theater classes, not only in the English-speaking world, but in the entire world. He is The Man. Shakespeare Rocks!


How does Shakespeare use language in romeo and Juliet act 3 scene 1?

Shakespeare uses language to write the play, since it is awfully difficult to have your characters speak or describe what they are doing without language.


Why is English considered as second language?

English is considered as second language for people whose first language is not English. For people who have been primarily speaking English since they were little, English is their first language.


Can you translate shakespeare English into modern English?

"Shakespeare English" is "modern English" and since translation is putting something from one language into another, no you can't. You can, of course, reword it in another idiom or dialect of the same language, which might more properly called paraphrase rather than translation. You can also recast Robert Burns's poetry into the dialect of a New York rapper, and recast the New York rap into the idiom of an Australian. So you could paraphrase Shakespeare into Broad Scots, New York Black or Australian dialects. The error to be avoided is thinking that Shakespeare's English is somehow a different language from the language you speak. It is not. You speak one idiom and other people in the world today speak other idioms, and Shakespeare and others in the past spoke yet other idioms.


When was middle English introduced?

The English language has gradually evolved over thousands of years. The changes have been gradual and subtle. For indicative purposes only, Etymologists have classified the written and spoken forms of English in the period from about 1100 to about 1500 as being 'Middle English'.They also classify the language of Britain and British America since mid 1500s as being 'Modern English'. However, the language of Shakespeare's day in the early 1600s was much different from the English used today.


Is English older than French language?

Neither English nor French is older than the other since the natives of the language did speak the language.


Why is William Shakespeare a master writer?

Shakespeare wrote more than thirty plays, many of which have been part of the world repertory since their premier. Many of his over a hundred and fifty sonnets are among the best ever written in the English language. He is studied in English, literature, drama, and theater class the world over.


In what year English become an official language of the UN?

English has been an official language for the United Nations since its founding in 1945.


How did Shakespeare influence Language?

1. By introducing new words and phrases which are still in use. 2. By perpetuating his dialect of English, since the greatness of his works means that loads of people learn that dialect to understand them.


What does abtute mean?

Nothing, since there is no such word in the English language.


What is the role of English language in Nigeria?

It is the official language since being a colony from 1800 to 1960


What the most used language in the world?

English since it is the first or second language for most people.


Will English be taken over by another language as an international trading language?

In my opinion not yet or in the forseeable future since many industries have a large influence from the English language


How old is the English Language spoken in US?

Modern English has been around since approximately 1400, long before the English language arrived in North America.


What language was spoken in France before French?

Probably Latin, since French is a "romance" language, which has nothing to do with love. It means a language derived from the language of the Roman empire-- which includes not just French but Italian, Spanish, and Portuguese. As with all of these languages, French evolved gradually from its Latin origins and ultimately became a distinct language; but its early version was very different from the French we see today (just like the English of Chaucer's day is quite different from modern English). During the period from about 800-1000, something that resembled French was beginning to be seen; by the time of the Renaissance, the language had evolved into something we could recognize even today.


What is Canada's official language?

English but since the French discovered canada, they speak French as a second language.


What does mounite mean?

Mounite has no meaning since there is no such word in the English language.


How many people speak Sanskrit as their mother tongue in India?

Not a mother tongue since it evolved only as literary Language


How do you say me in shakespearean language?

Shakespeare's language was Modern English, the same as we are using now. It is just a different dialect, like the English used in a different country from yours. Since he spoke English, "me" is "me". In fact, "me" in English has always been "me" as long as there has been an English language.


Why was William Shakespeare important in the renaisance?

Shakespeare wrote more than thirty plays, ten or twelve of which may be considered among the best in the history of the theater. They have been in continuous production since their premier. He also wrote over a hundred and fifty sonnets many of which are considered the best in the English language. His works have been translated into virtually every known language.


How did the English language become so popular throughout the world while other languages did not?

The English language is a West Germanic dialect dating back to the fifth century. This language evolved from the Anglo-Saxons in England and South Eastern Scotland. The English language became popular because of the power that England had as an empire. Since globalization was growing and since England was a major superpower in the world from the time of the Anglo-Saxons to the present, English was easily spread through or imposed upon her many colonies, including her colonies in North America, the Indian sub-continent and Oceania. The ease with which various peoples take to the English language may also have something to do with the fact that English, considered by many to be a creolized language, borrows huge numbers of words from many different language groups and adapts them seamlessly to English usage. It seems to be able to do this more quickly and effectively than many other languages.