how long can you leave house in deceased name
Because the property was not owned outright by the deceased persons being willed the property are responsible for the debt attached as well. If they do not want to take the financial responsibility of paying the debt or selling the property they can allow it to be included in the probate procedure and therefore are not responsible for foreclosure or other litigation connected to it. yes, you are responsible otherwise you lose the house you don not get it free just because someone dies. only the person named as heir to the house has to pay. just did this.
Who signs a mortgage is not determined by marital status. The persons who own the property as grantees in the deed must sign the mortgage. In the case where only one owns the property some lenders require the other party to sign. In that case, by signing, a non-owner agrees to be fully responsible for paying the mortgage if the primary borrower defaults although they do not own the property.Who signs a mortgage is not determined by marital status. The persons who own the property as grantees in the deed must sign the mortgage. In the case where only one owns the property some lenders require the other party to sign. In that case, by signing, a non-owner agrees to be fully responsible for paying the mortgage if the primary borrower defaults although they do not own the property.Who signs a mortgage is not determined by marital status. The persons who own the property as grantees in the deed must sign the mortgage. In the case where only one owns the property some lenders require the other party to sign. In that case, by signing, a non-owner agrees to be fully responsible for paying the mortgage if the primary borrower defaults although they do not own the property.Who signs a mortgage is not determined by marital status. The persons who own the property as grantees in the deed must sign the mortgage. In the case where only one owns the property some lenders require the other party to sign. In that case, by signing, a non-owner agrees to be fully responsible for paying the mortgage if the primary borrower defaults although they do not own the property.
That's how it works!
When a person with no next-of-kin dies owning property, their property 'escheats' to the state.
no
It sounds as if you're not legally responsible for the deceased client.
The mortgagor is responsible for paying the mortgage. The mortgagor cannot quitclaim the property while the mortgage is outstanding. Mortgage documents have a due on transfer clause whereby the lender will call in the loan if there is a transfer of ownership. Ignoring that provision will get you and your purchaser in a lot of trouble.The mortgagor is responsible for paying the mortgage. The mortgagor cannot quitclaim the property while the mortgage is outstanding. Mortgage documents have a due on transfer clause whereby the lender will call in the loan if there is a transfer of ownership. Ignoring that provision will get you and your purchaser in a lot of trouble.The mortgagor is responsible for paying the mortgage. The mortgagor cannot quitclaim the property while the mortgage is outstanding. Mortgage documents have a due on transfer clause whereby the lender will call in the loan if there is a transfer of ownership. Ignoring that provision will get you and your purchaser in a lot of trouble.The mortgagor is responsible for paying the mortgage. The mortgagor cannot quitclaim the property while the mortgage is outstanding. Mortgage documents have a due on transfer clause whereby the lender will call in the loan if there is a transfer of ownership. Ignoring that provision will get you and your purchaser in a lot of trouble.
The only persons on a mortgage are the owners of the property. If your wife owns the property the lender would have required that she sign it. If she doesn't own the property then she isn't a party to the mortgage. You can't "add" her to the reverse mortgage transaction if she doesn't own the property. The purpose of a reverse mortgage is to grant the title to the premises to the bank upon the death of the owner. Therefore only the owner signs.If you are thinking of including a new wife (or wife who was not an owner of the property) under the benefits of a reverse mortgage you already executed, it is too late. You should contact the bank for more information.The only persons on a mortgage are the owners of the property. If your wife owns the property the lender would have required that she sign it. If she doesn't own the property then she isn't a party to the mortgage. You can't "add" her to the reverse mortgage transaction if she doesn't own the property. The purpose of a reverse mortgage is to grant the title to the premises to the bank upon the death of the owner. Therefore only the owner signs.If you are thinking of including a new wife (or wife who was not an owner of the property) under the benefits of a reverse mortgage you already executed, it is too late. You should contact the bank for more information.The only persons on a mortgage are the owners of the property. If your wife owns the property the lender would have required that she sign it. If she doesn't own the property then she isn't a party to the mortgage. You can't "add" her to the reverse mortgage transaction if she doesn't own the property. The purpose of a reverse mortgage is to grant the title to the premises to the bank upon the death of the owner. Therefore only the owner signs.If you are thinking of including a new wife (or wife who was not an owner of the property) under the benefits of a reverse mortgage you already executed, it is too late. You should contact the bank for more information.The only persons on a mortgage are the owners of the property. If your wife owns the property the lender would have required that she sign it. If she doesn't own the property then she isn't a party to the mortgage. You can't "add" her to the reverse mortgage transaction if she doesn't own the property. The purpose of a reverse mortgage is to grant the title to the premises to the bank upon the death of the owner. Therefore only the owner signs.If you are thinking of including a new wife (or wife who was not an owner of the property) under the benefits of a reverse mortgage you already executed, it is too late. You should contact the bank for more information.
Yes. ==Clarification== The mortgage company can only foreclose if the OWNER of the real estate signed the mortgage. If someone other than the owner signed the mortgage the bank has no interest in the property and therefore cannot foreclose.
Certainly not, it would be theft.
I HAVE ALREADY PAID 40,000 INTI THE HOME I CANT PAY ANYMORE THE HOUSE PRICE WAS LOWERD 5X AND IT WAS ON THE MARKET 456 DAYS I MAILED IN THE KEYS TO THE MORTGAGE COMPANY WITH A LETTER
The probate code would explain the process for closing an estate.