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Germany was appeased over by Sudetenland because Hitler believed that it should be part of Germany since they spoke German and they were Germans.

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Q: How was Germany appeased over by Sudetenland?
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Related questions

Who was the prime minister in the first part of World War 2?

You could be referring to Neville Chamberlin, who appeased Germany with the Sudetenland but most likely you mean Winston Churchill


With what appeasement was sudetenland turned over to germany?

neutrality act


Did Chamberlain convince the Czech government to give over the Sudetenland?

no. Chamberlain and others talked with Germany and agreed that Germany would take the Sudetenland. No one talked to the Czechs.


What is the word for letting Germany take over the Sudetenland?

The word is "appeasement."


Munich Agreement (1938)?

Turned Czechoslovakia, at the time called Sudetenland, over to Germany.


When did Germany take Sudetenland?

In 1938.


How does Sudetenland relate to World War 2?

It was one of the regions taken over by Germany leading to WW2.


Why did Germany invade Czechoslovakia before the war?

In the summer of 1938, Germany and Czechoslovakia began to quarrel over the disputed border area of the Sudetenland.


What country annexes Austria and the Sudetenland?

Nazi Germany


Before invading Poland what two other countries did Germany take over?

Sudetenland/Rests of Czech Republic and Austria


what country was attacked by Germany while the world appeased Hitler?

Poland .


In what city was Hitler appeased?

Hitler was appeased in Munich, Germany. And to appease means to give in or gain the good will of someone. In other words, Hitler got his way in Munich Germany. The Germans gave in to his commands.