Nothing. Some people think that he wrote the play to please the king because it is about Scotland, has a flattering reference to James's ancestor Banquo and deals with witches, which were one of the king's pet subjects. However, all of these things were part of the story before Shakespeare got hold of it, in his source material, Holinshed's Chronicles. Holinshed has this to say about the witches and Banquo's decendants:
"when suddenlie in the middest of a laund, there met them thrée women in strange and wild apparell, resembling creatures of elder world, whome when they attentiuelie beheld, woondering much at the sight, the first of them spake and said; "All haile Makbeth, thane of Glammis" (for he had latelie entered into that dignitie and office by the death of his father Sinell.) The second of them said; "Haile Makbeth thane of Cawder." But the third said; "All haile Makbeth that héerafter shalt be king of Scotland." Then Banquho; "What manner of women (saith he) are you, that séeme so little fauourable vnto me, whereas to my fellow heere, besides high offices, ye assigne also the kingdome, appointing foorth nothing for me at all?" "Yes (saith the first of them) we promise greater benefits vnto thée, than vnto him, for he shall reigne in déed, but with an vnluckie end: neither shall he leaue anie issue behind him to succéed in his place, where contrarilie thou in déed shalt not reigne at all, but of thée those shall be borne which shall gouerne the Scotish kingdome by long order of continuall descent."
i think it was the queen elizabeth
Yes, William Shakespeare [Baptized April 26, 1564-April 23, 1616] wrote 'The Tragedy of Macbeth'. He most likely wrote the play no earlier than 1603, and no later than 1606 or 1607. The choice of a tragic theme, the harmonization of the play with the interests of the prevailing monarch, the presentation of a range of personality types, and the use of compelling dialogue were hallmarks of 'Macbeth' and of the other Shakespearean tragedies.
Shakespeare's name was William Shakespeare no matter who the monarch was.
James the 1st was monarch when Shakespeare wrote the Tempest because Shakespeare wrote the Tempest when he was coming tot the end of his life and during his life Queen Elizabeth 1 and James 1 reigned and Queen Elizabeth 1 was monarch when Shakespeare was born so it is obviously James 1.The tempest was written in 1611. James I was king.
They financed him a new theater
i think it was the queen elizabeth
Yes, William Shakespeare [Baptized April 26, 1564-April 23, 1616] wrote 'The Tragedy of Macbeth'. He most likely wrote the play no earlier than 1603, and no later than 1606 or 1607. The choice of a tragic theme, the harmonization of the play with the interests of the prevailing monarch, the presentation of a range of personality types, and the use of compelling dialogue were hallmarks of 'Macbeth' and of the other Shakespearean tragedies.
Shakespeare's name was William Shakespeare no matter who the monarch was.
During the time when Shakespeare was writing plays, Queen Elizabeth I was the ruling monarch of England. She reigned from 1558 to 1603. After her death, King James I took over as the monarch, and Shakespeare continued to write plays during his reign as well.
At the beginning of the play "Macbeth," Duncan is the king of Scotland. He is a benevolent and respected monarch.
James the 1st was monarch when Shakespeare wrote the Tempest because Shakespeare wrote the Tempest when he was coming tot the end of his life and during his life Queen Elizabeth 1 and James 1 reigned and Queen Elizabeth 1 was monarch when Shakespeare was born so it is obviously James 1.The tempest was written in 1611. James I was king.
They financed him a new theater
You're a playwright, the most successful alive. The new King is your patron. You have a record of writing plays to please the reigning monarch. Why not write a play which reinforces the legitimacy of the King's family and shows him to be descended from good guys who had every right to depose the bad guy, Macbeth? Good politics, eh?
Francis Bacon.
King John
Sorry, no English monarch was instrumental in propelling Shakespeare to fame. James I did stand as a sponsor to the theatrical company Shakespeare belonged to, but Shakespeare was no more famous when he retired from that company in 1613 than he was when the King took up the sponsorship of it in 1603. Shakespeare had already built his rep by then. Shakespeare of course became more and more famous after his death, but it was not due to the royal favour of any monarch--more to the admiration and later adulation of literary figures and theatrical people.
The monarch who rules in Verona in the play Romeo and Juliet is Escalus the Duke.