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Nothing. Some people think that he wrote the play to please the king because it is about Scotland, has a flattering reference to James's ancestor Banquo and deals with witches, which were one of the king's pet subjects. However, all of these things were part of the story before Shakespeare got hold of it, in his source material, Holinshed's Chronicles. Holinshed has this to say about the witches and Banquo's decendants:
"when suddenlie in the middest of a laund, there met them thrée women in strange and wild apparell, resembling creatures of elder world, whome when they attentiuelie beheld, woondering much at the sight, the first of them spake and said; "All haile Makbeth, thane of Glammis" (for he had latelie entered into that dignitie and office by the death of his father Sinell.) The second of them said; "Haile Makbeth thane of Cawder." But the third said; "All haile Makbeth that héerafter shalt be king of Scotland." Then Banquho; "What manner of women (saith he) are you, that séeme so little fauourable vnto me, whereas to my fellow heere, besides high offices, ye assigne also the kingdome, appointing foorth nothing for me at all?" "Yes (saith the first of them) we promise greater benefits vnto thée, than vnto him, for he shall reigne in déed, but with an vnluckie end: neither shall he leaue anie issue behind him to succéed in his place, where contrarilie thou in déed shalt not reigne at all, but of thée those shall be borne which shall gouerne the Scotish kingdome by long order of continuall descent."

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Jeanette Kulas

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2y ago
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15y ago

James I of England was also quite separately James VI of Scotland and very interested in Scottish history and his own ancestry. His was also very interested in witchcraft, so Shakespeare introduced a sizeable dollop of that.

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14y ago

In the Shakespearean play, King Duncan I [d. August 14, 1040] was grateful to Macbeth [c. 1014-August 15, 1057]. He was so thankful that he gave the title and possessions of the disgraced Thane of Cawdor to Macbeth. The reason for the gratitude was Macbeth's typically brave, courageous, heroic, noble defense of his king and his country. Most particularly had he maintained that valiant stance against seemingly insurmountable odds in the recent struggles against invading Norwegians and rebellious Scotsmen. Where others dared not tread, friends and fellow Generals Macbeth and Banquo threw themselves in the midst of the bloodied fray.

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13y ago

James supported everything Shakespeare's company did, which is why they were called the King's Men. It is thought that the play Macbeth was written to please the King for two reasons: first, because according to Holinshed, Shakespeare's source for the play, Banquo was James's ancestor, and this is portrayed as Macbeth is shown a line of kings stretching out to the crack of doom. Second, James was a great believer in witches and it is thought that the witche scenes were put in to please him.

We don't really know if the play was presented at the Blackfriars or at court, although this seems most likely, nor whether James liked it.

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8y ago

Wrong. There is no evidence that Macbeth was ever performed for King James. It is noticeably absent from the lists of plays which were performed at court. Indeed we have only one record of it having been played during Shakespeare's lifetime, and that was at the Globe in 1611. Because that account differs in details from the play we know, because of its shortness, because it was never published in Quarto, and because parts were clearly added by another hand before it was published in the First Folio suggest that it was much-revised and generally unpopular. It may well be that the king was not happy with the play for portraying the murder of a well-loved Scottish king by the main character of the story. Such a story might give people ideas. Parts of the story which are flattering to the king, such as the references to Fleance's descendants becoming kings when he was supposedly an ancestor of the Stuarts, the dumb-show in Act IV Scene 1, and building Malcolm up as a parallel to James (both of their fathers were murdered) and extolling his virtues all are included to try to soften the potentially offensive nature of the story.

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15y ago

King James the First of England was also King James the Sixth of Scotland with Scottish ancestry and upbringing. He was also fascinated by witchcraft. He also had a cousin called Banquo.

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15y ago

King James I believed that the play had real witch encantations. He had supposedly wrote a book on demonology.

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15y ago

James I of England (VI of Scotland) is not in MacBeth

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8y ago

He killed the previous king....might is right in those times

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Q: Macbeth was first performed for king James 1. how does shakespeare use the play to compiment his monarch?
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Which monarch was on the throne wwhy it is when shakespeare wrote Macbeth and why was this significant?

i think it was the queen elizabeth


Did Shakespeare write Macbeth?

Yes, William Shakespeare [Baptized April 26, 1564-April 23, 1616] wrote 'The Tragedy of Macbeth'. He most likely wrote the play no earlier than 1603, and no later than 1606 or 1607. The choice of a tragic theme, the harmonization of the play with the interests of the prevailing monarch, the presentation of a range of personality types, and the use of compelling dialogue were hallmarks of 'Macbeth' and of the other Shakespearean tragedies.


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Shakespeare's name was William Shakespeare no matter who the monarch was.


Who was king when Shakespeare was writing plays?

During the time when Shakespeare was writing plays, Queen Elizabeth I was the ruling monarch of England. She reigned from 1558 to 1603. After her death, King James I took over as the monarch, and Shakespeare continued to write plays during his reign as well.


In Macbeth when the play opens who is the king of Scotland?

At the beginning of the play "Macbeth," Duncan is the king of Scotland. He is a benevolent and respected monarch.


Who Was Monarch when Shakespeare wrote the tempest?

James the 1st was monarch when Shakespeare wrote the Tempest because Shakespeare wrote the Tempest when he was coming tot the end of his life and during his life Queen Elizabeth 1 and James 1 reigned and Queen Elizabeth 1 was monarch when Shakespeare was born so it is obviously James 1.The tempest was written in 1611. James I was king.


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You're a playwright, the most successful alive. The new King is your patron. You have a record of writing plays to please the reigning monarch. Why not write a play which reinforces the legitimacy of the King's family and shows him to be descended from good guys who had every right to depose the bad guy, Macbeth? Good politics, eh?


English monarch whose name is used to label the dramas written by shakespeare and his contemporaries shakespeare?

Francis Bacon.


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Which English monarch helped propel Shakespeare to fame?

Sorry, no English monarch was instrumental in propelling Shakespeare to fame. James I did stand as a sponsor to the theatrical company Shakespeare belonged to, but Shakespeare was no more famous when he retired from that company in 1613 than he was when the King took up the sponsorship of it in 1603. Shakespeare had already built his rep by then. Shakespeare of course became more and more famous after his death, but it was not due to the royal favour of any monarch--more to the admiration and later adulation of literary figures and theatrical people.


What Monarch was on the throne when shakespeare wrote Romeo and Juliet?

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