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Absolute rulers tended to rule without Parliament.
-Same- both wanted to modernize for the benefit of there country -Different- Africa allowed Imperial rule Muslim Countries didnt allow imperial rule
-Same- both wanted to modernize for the benefit of there country -Different- Africa allowed Imperial rule Muslim Countries didnt allow imperial rule
russian rulers continued the mongols' use of absolute power
Well, in 1742, the midieval ruler's claimed that they had all the power, but really did not. In an absoulte power though, the rulers were absolute, therefore had all of the power whereas medeival rulers only had partial power, and most of the time it was revoked. This was is also true in present times though is not relevant.
-Same- both wanted to modernize for the benefit of there country -Different- Africa allowed Imperial rule Muslim Countries didnt allow imperial rule
Great question! I assume that you got that question from the Sonlight school curriculum. Here is the exact answer: 304 years
because his was more strict and it was not fair
Absolute rule occurs with a monarch or dictator has the ultimate authority to govern a nation. North Korea has absolute rule at the present time.
Absolute monarchs exercise unchecked power and make decisions without constraints from a constitution or governing body. They have the authority to enact laws, levy taxes, and control the military as they see fit, often resulting in autocratic rule.
The term "autocratic" refers to a type of leadership style. An "autocrat" is similar to a "despot" in that they both rule with absolute power.
Absolute rule occurs with a monarch or dictator has the ultimate authority to govern a nation. North Korea has absolute rule at the present time.