On certain and Special Occasions
yes
They were tests to deny African Americans and poor whites the right to vote
With the government eliminating poll taxes, it allowed many more to be able to vote.
many African Americans could not afford the tax, so they couldn't vote. poor whites were in the same situation.
actually, the poverty in India led to lack of education For money some poor parents send there children to work and they avoid there children to go to school . And if the poor children are also educated they can also keep there idea or knowledge and interact with world If the children are uneducated the they don't know the meaning of democracy and they vote for any member that they like.
American individual's socioeconomic status affects the likelihood that they will vote during elections. Typically, wealthier, college educated people tend to vote more than poor, uneducated people. Additionally, older folks are more likely to vote than younger citizens.
yes.because it is their civil right
In 1936 only the whites could vote. The blacks and women were not able to vote back then.
Billy Graham is a conservative Christian who has aligned himself with the Republican party; given his poor health, we do not know if he voted, but undoubtedly, if he were able to vote, he would have cast his vote for Mitt Romney.
1670
if it wasn't ratified then many of the poor wouldn't be able to pay the fee to vote . mostly the poor and African Americans
The first was a literacy test that had to be passed by every person in order to vote. Even though there were a number of poor whites who could not read, this law had a far greater impact on former slaves.The second law allowed for a poll tax to be charged. Simply stated, all eligible voters had to pay a tax in order to vote. Like the first law, this severely restricted poor people from voting-black and white.