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What else can I help you with?
Can a two owner property one owner does nothing for ten years sell without permission form the other owner?
Both owners would need to sign the deed in order to convey the property to a new owner. If only one owner signs then they will only convey a half interest.
Someone is renting your land after a few years do they have an appeal to your land?
Answer: By renting your land they are acknowledging that you are the owner. There would be no grounds for an adverse claim. Adverse possession arises when a person uses someone else's property without permission of the owner of the property. A landlord and tenant relationship clearly demonstrates that the property was used with the permission of the owner.
Can a person who has been using a piece of property for nine years that belongs to another person say that it is theirs?
Answer: A person cannot make an adverse claim on property if they had the owner's permission to occupy it. The nature of your use of the property would need to be ascertained.
If someone leaves a storage building on private property for 8 years pays no rent and then decides they want to move the building who owns it--the property owner or the building owner?
Good question. It sounds like something a law professor might ask on an exam. Who really owns the building now? How did the building get there in the first place? If there was no agreement or understanding of any kind when the building was left behind, would the building now be deemed to have been abandonned? What, if any, conversations took place since, between the land owner and the person who left the property behind? Has the statute of limitations expired for the owner to claim it back? What rights does the property owner have to claim rent from the building owner? Does the building conststitute a fixture? If so, it would probably belong to the owner of the land. Some practical questions, however, are: What value does the property owner place on the building? Does the property owner have a use for the building? Is it something over which the property owner is prepared to go to court? Is it something over which the property owner is prepared to endure long-lasting hard feelings on the part of the building owner? If the property owner wants to keep the building, would it be better to make a "without prejudice" offer to buy it from the building owner? C'mon first year law students. Wadda ya think?
Can a property owner transfer ownership of property to a non-profit organization with the stipulation that the property will revert back to the property owner in 20 years?
In the United States, no. Any conveyance would be construed as a conveyance in fee.In the United States, no. Any conveyance would be construed as a conveyance in fee.In the United States, no. Any conveyance would be construed as a conveyance in fee.In the United States, no. Any conveyance would be construed as a conveyance in fee.
Can you charge a storage fee on personal belongings left in your home for over six years?
No . Not unless the owner agreed in writing to pay storage fees. You can check the laws for abandoned property in your state. You may find that you have the right to dispose of the property after six years of free storage.No . Not unless the owner agreed in writing to pay storage fees. You can check the laws for abandoned property in your state. You may find that you have the right to dispose of the property after six years of free storage.No . Not unless the owner agreed in writing to pay storage fees. You can check the laws for abandoned property in your state. You may find that you have the right to dispose of the property after six years of free storage.No . Not unless the owner agreed in writing to pay storage fees. You can check the laws for abandoned property in your state. You may find that you have the right to dispose of the property after six years of free storage.
What is the law of renting land for 20 years and your right to own the land?
You have no right to ownership of real property by renting it for 20 years unless you had a written agreement with the owner that you were renting to own and you have met the conditions in the contract.You have no right to ownership of real property by renting it for 20 years unless you had a written agreement with the owner that you were renting to own and you have met the conditions in the contract.You have no right to ownership of real property by renting it for 20 years unless you had a written agreement with the owner that you were renting to own and you have met the conditions in the contract.You have no right to ownership of real property by renting it for 20 years unless you had a written agreement with the owner that you were renting to own and you have met the conditions in the contract.
How many years is a life time right good for in property?
A life time right is good for the duration of the owner's (owner of the right) natural life.
How can a title company insure a Florida property on a private road for more than 10 years?
Once an Owner's Policy is issued, it is in effect for as long as that owner is in title to the property, be it 1 year or 80 years. A Mortgage Policy covers the Lender's interests until the mortgage is paid off - either through the life of the loan, by sale or refinancing. So, a title agency could have coverage on a property that exceeds 10 years if a Policy was issued and the same owner owns it or the same loan still exists on the property.
What is an easement by prescription?
may be created by continuous and uninterrupted use, by a single party, for a period of five years. The use must be against the owner's wishes and be open and notorious. No confrontation with the owner is required and property taxes do not have to be paid. The party wishing to obtain the prescriptive easement must have some reasonable claim to the use of the property
Can you get your money back if you pay someones delinquent taxes and they decide to come back and get the property before a years time?
The owner will have to reimburse you in order to regain control of the property.
Regarding squatter's rights who has the right to property that has been maintained for years in a foreclosure sale?
"Squatters" are a misunderstood group. Generally, in the United States they have no rights. They are trespassers during their period of trespass. They are people who use and improve another person's land openly and without permission. If the owner allows the situation to extend for a period of years (that period varies from state to state) they can file an action for "adverse possession" and obtain title to the premises. Until they do that and succeed they have no rights. The procedure varies in different states.It sounds as though the party who maintained the property for years had someone's permission to do so. In that case they would not be considered "squatters". If they had an agreement to maintain the property while living there then they could sue the other party if they breached the agreement. However, they are using the property subject to the mortgage that the owner granted to a bank. The bank has the right to take possession of the property by a foreclosure. It can sell the property and apply the proceeds toward the unpaid balance on the mortgage.
