50%
If the female is not a carrier of hemophilia herself then any male born to the couple would be free of the disease, but all the females would end up being carriers. The reason for this is sex linked. The gene for hemophilia happens on the X chromosome so males who get their X chromosome from their mothers would be free, but since a female gets an X from both parents would be a carier.
Hemophilia is passed down from mother to son. It is extremely
rare for a woman to have hemophilia. It is necessary, though, for
a woman to be a carrier of the disorder for her son to acquire this
disorder. Females have two X chromosomes whereas males only
have one. When a boy is born, he takes one X chromosome from
his mother and one Y chromosome from his father. Therefore, he
can only get hemophilia through his mother.
Example One:
Mother(Carrier)+Father(Non-Affected)=50% chance of their son
acquiring the disorder and 50% chance of their daughter being a
carrier.
Example Two:
Mother(Non-Affected)+Father(Hemophiliac)=All sons will be
non-affected and all daughters will be carriers.
All of her children will carry the gene responsible for hemphilia; however the males may be the only to express its effects. It is due to an abnormal X chromosome and the normal male will give a normal X to cover the recessive or abnormal X in the female children-thus no expression of hemophilia.
Women do not get haemophilia ( or factor 8 deficiency ) but they do carry it. Â?They have no symptoms themselves, but pass it on to their male children, who would have symptoms.
I advise you to ask your doctor to test your blood and your husband's blood. Â?Once those results are available, he will be in a position to offer 'genetic counselling'. Â?
1/4 or 25%
Yes. In fact hemphilia only affect men. The condition is tied to the male chromosome.
Hemophilia is a dominant gene mutation in the X chromosome.
Without any bread There was an old woman who lived in a shoe. She had so many children, she didn't know what to do. She gave them some broth without any bread, Then whipped them all soundly and put them to bed.
No. Menstruation is the shedding of the lining of the womb. No womb, no shedding.
There are several different types of impotency in men. When the sperm cell numbers are reduced because of some type of harm such as radiation, the structure of the sperm is harmed. It is not known if these changes result in birth defects, of if they simply reduce the chances of getting the woman pregnant.
50%
50%
50%
There is no chance that the child will have hemophilia even if the spouse has hemophilia. Any girls the couple has will be carriers if the spouse has hemophilia.
All Girls will be carriers of Hemophilia. All Boys will be unaffected (they won't have Hemophilia).
There are no hard answers to this, it depends strictly on luck. The statistics are though not very good for their children. Statisically the couple have a chance of having a normal son, a daughter that is a carrier for hemophilia, a daughter with hemophilia and a son with hemophia.
If the female has what is classically defined as female hemophilia (carries the mutation on both of her X chromosomes), then all sons she would have would also have hemophilia. All of the woman's daughters would also inherit the gene, however since they would also be getting a normal X chromosome from their father, they would not, themselves, have hemophilia under the classical definition. Today, it is understood that even carrying the trait on a single X chromosome can reduce a female's factor levels and give cause for doctors to diagnose her with hemophilia. Thus if you are simply looking at genetics (which you probably are) then the answer is all of her sons would have it and all of her daughters would be carriers. Therefore, since there is a 50-50 chance the first child bore would be a male, and a 50-50 chance it would be a female, the chance that their first child born would have hemophilia is 50%.
She has 1/2 chance. We can figure out exactly what her parents' genotypes were. Her brother has a Hemophilia allele that he got from his mom. So their mom has at least 1 Hemophilia allele. If she had 2 then she would have Hemophilia. The father cannot have a Hemophilia allele because it would have been expressed. So her chances are 1/2 because her mother has 1 Hemophiliac and 1 normal allele.
She is a carrier of hemophilia but does not have the condition
Her father has to have hemophilia as well, and the mother is a carrier or also has hemophilia. So if we pretend that the hemophilia gene is "x", you need to have "xx" to have hemophilia. The father must have the genotype "Yx" and the mother has the have "Xx" or "xx".
It is possible but extremely rare.
The gene that causes hemophilia is located on the X chromosome. A woman who gives birth to a child with hemophilia often has other male relatives who have hemophilia. Sometimes, a baby will be born with hemophilia when there is no known family history. This means the gene can be"hidden"( or passed down through several generations of female carriers without affecting any male members of the family) or the change in the X chromosome is new (a spontaneous mutation).