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I'm not an attorney, but a contract goes into effect upon acceptance (plus, of course, proper notice to the offeror that the offeree has accepted the contract). Therefore, if a contract is declared void ab initio, that means it never existed (ergo, it rolls matters back to the point before acceptance). Thus, I would say it is not an enforceable promise. BUT I'm not an attorney... this is just my understanding of the law.

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Q: If a signed contract is declared void ab initio due to administrative procedures not complid with by one of the parties is the precedent offer and acceptance for the same still an enforceable promise?
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