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This is an interesting question. A person cannot convey what they do not own. If there was only one property described in the deed and the grantor does not own that property then that deed is a nullity, in other words, legally void. It would be ignored in the chain of title for that property. If several properties were described in the deed and one was not owned by the grantor then only the "conveyance" of that one property would be null and void and the deed would be effective as to the other properties that were owned by the grantor.

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Q: If someone files a deed that has property listed that they don't own does this void the deed that was filed?
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