Whoever you paid the debt to must have not had the account with them, therefore they returned the payment. So to answer your question, yes you are still liable until there is a zero balance on the debt you owe.
When a debit card is used the payment is immediate.The Account linked to the card is debited online for the necessary amount.
One option for you is to open basic bank account online. Through this, build your credibility and then later, you can get a bank account in a bank.
Are you perhaps referring to an original account being sold or a charge being forwarded to a new credit card you have obtained? All states have a SOL's which means if a debt has been paid or acted upon within a certain amount of time, it is no longer valid. CC can sell your account to second or third parties who, if the SOL is not expired can collect on the debt, including accrued interest. Feel free to email me if I can be of further help. No. Merchants only have one year to submit a transaction. They can not wait 6 years. My advise is to write the Credit Card Company and dispute these charges and also claim the account was closed and the charge should of not went through.
Yes. They blocked your account from payments while the car was being looked for.
Martial status has no bearing on credit card bills. The issue is whether it is a joint or an individual account. Joint accounts are the liability of both signators, regardless of their marital status. If one party has their obligation discharged in bankruptcy, the other account holder becomes liable for 100% of any remaining balance. Debts and assets are frequently distributed during the divorce process and spouses may have recourse within the jurisdiction of that court. However, your divorce degree will never supercede any other contract (like a card holder agreement) and will have no bearing on credit issues. Creditors hold the person(s) liable who initially opened the account. They don't care if you divorce later on, they still want to be paid.
No, You are not liable.
In QuickBooks, you go to 'Accountant'--> 'make general journal entries'. And in 'Account' you write the account of the bill and the amount will be in the debit side. Then down the second account is 'account payable' with the amount in the credit side.
The two common meanings of liable are: 1. likely to do or be something 2. Owing a duty (responsibility) in law. An example of the first usage would be: 1. Those who do not work hard at school are liable to regret it later in life. And for the second usage: 2. The defendant is liable to pay damages to the amount of £500.
NO, They are not liable if their insured was not at fault or was not their insured regardless of whether a check had already been written or not. In fact should they have issued a settlement check and later determined they were not liable, The insurer can demand a refund of the settlement amount they issued.
I deposited a cashiers check issued to me. 24 hrs later the bank said it was good and made the funds available to me. Two days later, they froze my account and said the check was fraudulent. I am being held liable. Are they not responsible?
Certifying officials are pecuniarily liable for GPC purchases they certify for payment that may later be determined illegal.
Their first flight was December 17,1903, but was credited for it in1908.(five years later.)
Yes
Their only similarity is the manner in which they are used at the point of sale. If you present a Debit card, the amount of sale is immediately deducted from your bank account. If you present a Credit card, the amount of sale is added to your credit account and then you are billed for payment monthly at a later date.
When a debit card is used the payment is immediate.The Account linked to the card is debited online for the necessary amount.
Later on... They will have account information Next Year
When you close an account you cancel the account, you delete it, if you close an account it won't be there later!!