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why correlation cofficient always lies between 1 and -1
A serious error. The maximum magnitude for a correlation coefficient is 1.The Correlation coefficient is lies between -1 to 1 if it is 0 mean there is no correlation between them. Here they are given less than -1 value so it is not a value of correlation coefficient.
Why the value of correlation coefficient is always between -1 and 1?
A coefficient of correlation of 0.70 infers that there is an overall correlation between the trends being compared. The correlation is not perfect, but enough to be acknowledged and researched further.
An error! Correlation must be between -1 and 1.
why correlation cofficient always lies between 1 and -1
1.0
0.5
There is no correlation between stewardship and homosexuality.There is no correlation between stewardship and homosexuality.
because we have hall cofficient =1/ne. where the n=no of electron ,e=charge of electron. we know that "n "in metal is very large. so that R=HALL COFFICIENT" is very small FOR it .so we can not find sufficient result for hall cofficient so we use semi conductor which gives non zero hall cofficient.
No, there is not a correlation.
partial correlation is the relation between two variable after controlling for other variables and multiple correlation is correlation between dependent and group of independent variables.
Thgere's no correlation whatsoever between amplitude and wavelength.
There is no correlation.
The correlation can be anything between +1 (strong positive correlation), passing through zero (no correlation), to -1 (strong negative correlation).
correlation implies the cause and effect relationship,, but casuality doesn't imply correlation.
Positive correlation has a positive slope and negative correlation has a negative slope.