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It depends.

Under the Law that was given to the Israelites by Moses, in the 'Old Testament', God allowed for certain grounds for divorce, though it was not encouraged (Matthew 19:8).

Christians are not under the Mosaic Law, so the Old Testament would not affect a Christian's life that way. HOWEVER, according to the "New Testament' in The Bible, the ONLY grounds for divorce is 'fornication'. Jesus brought this out when he said: "I say to YOU that whoever divorces his wife, except on the ground of fornication, and marries another commits adultery."(Matthew 19:9)(Matthew 5:32)

Because of this, many feel that if fornication has not taken place, a scriptural divorce would not be possible, and any remarriage would be considered adultery in God's sight(Matthew 5:32)(Luke18:20)(Romans 13:9) (Mark 10:11-12)(Romans 7:3). And if fornication DID take place, the guilty party would be considered an 'adulterer' (Matthew 15:19), while the innocent party could now seek a divorce if desired.

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Q: Is divorce really a sin if in the Old Testament it was legal under certain circumstances?
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