No. You'll never see a bathroom scale that says your mechanical advantage
is 140 pounds.
The mechanical advantage of a device like a lever or a hydraulic jack is a measure
of how the force changes between the input of the device and its output.
if only the direction changes,the input force will be the same as the output force.the mechanical advantage will always be 1.
if only the direction changes,the input force will be the same as the output force.the mechanical advantage will always be 1.
Speed ratio and mechanical advantage are not the same because they are inversely related. Speed ratio is a measure of how much the input speed is amplified or reduced by a machine, while mechanical advantage is a measure of how much the input force is amplified or reduced. A machine that increases speed will have a mechanical advantage less than one, while a machine that increases force will have a mechanical advantage greater than one.
The mechanical advantage of a single fixed pulley is always one because it changes the direction of the force applied without providing any leverage to increase the force. This means that the input force is the same as the output force, resulting in a mechanical advantage of 1.
No, mechanical advantage has no units, it is simple the ratio of an output quantity, such as force, to the input quantity. For example if it takes 10 pounds to lift a 50 pound object, the mechanical advantage is = 5
The ideal mechanical advantage of a fixed pulley is 1, as it does not provide any mechanical advantage in terms of force. The direction of the input (effort) and output (load) for a fixed pulley is the same, as the pulley simply changes the direction of the force applied.
Theoretical mechanical advantage is the ratio of the input force to the output force without considering friction, while actual mechanical advantage includes frictional losses in the machine. If a machine is 100 percent efficient, there will be no frictional losses, so the theoretical and actual mechanical advantages will be the same, resulting in a 1:1 ratio of input force to output force.
When the effort force is decreased, the mechanical advantage must be increased in order to maintain the same level of output force. This can be achieved by either adjusting the length of the lever or using different mechanical systems that provide a greater advantage.
For a pulley, when is it that the mechanical advantage is greater than 1 and when is it that it is equal to 1? If a rope was hung over a pulley with unequal weights applied to both ends, the larger weight (77kg) would pull the lesser weight (30kg) upward, and so what would the mechanical advantage there be? The thing about this question is that if a rope were hung over a pulley and the tension at each point was the same (neglecting the mass of the rope and pulley), then how is it that if both ends of the rope point downward that the mechanical advantage becomes 2 (if there was just that one pulley)? Is the mechanical advantage any different if someone was applying a force to one end of the rope compared to gravity acting alone?
The mechanical advantage that a machine would have without friction or in another term is that you can find the IDEAL MECHANICAL ADVANTAGE (IMA) OF A MACHINE IS BY HAVING A MACHINE WITH NO FRICTION, ALSO BY MULTIPLYING YOUR EFFORT FORCE BY 2, HOWEVER BECAUSE OF FRICTION AND THE WEIGHT THE ACTUAL MA WILL BE LESS.
The answer is 5. To find mechanical advantage, divide the force required by the force given. 200/40 = 5
Yes, a pulley system can provide both a directional advantage (changing the direction of the force) and a mechanical advantage (increasing the output force) simultaneously. By adding more pulleys to the system, you can reduce the amount of force needed to lift a heavy object while also changing the direction of the force applied.