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Is it correct to say the noblemen's houses?

Updated: 5/1/2024

Wiki User

∙ 11y ago

Best Answer

Yes.

Wiki User

∙ 11y ago

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∙ 1d ago

Yes, it is correct to say "the noblemen's houses" to refer to the houses belonging to noblemen. The possessive form "noblemen's" indicates that the houses belong to more than one nobleman.

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