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No. The laws that are used and enforced in a country are so because the people in power have deecided that they are just. It is not up to individuals to decide which laws are just and which are not; otherwise, anarchy ensues as, for example, someone decides it is not just for a person to have three TVs when they do not have one themselves and that they should have one. Justice is a matter of perspective.
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∙ 15y ago
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What category does the word just belong in?
Depending on its use, just can be either an adjective or adverb. just (adj.) - fair, lawful just (adv.) - right before, exactly, only
What are 4 different types of ex post facto laws?
Retroactive criminal laws that criminalize an action that was not illegal when committed. Laws that increase the punishment for a crime after it has been committed. Laws that change the rules of evidence required for conviction after the crime has been committed. Laws that alter the legal consequences of an action that was lawful when performed.
Why is judgment only given only after lawful hearing?
Because that is the way the law works.
What is The only lawful reason to classify information?
The only lawful reason to classify information is to protect national security, prevent harm to individuals or communities, or safeguard sensitive data from unauthorized access or disclosure.
The only lawful reason to classify information is to protect national security?
True
What civilization was superior in laws and technology the Greek empire or Roman republic?
Your question is a tough one to answer especially in regard to laws. Rome and Greece were different peoples so their laws applied to their individual cultures. Rome would have to have an edge on Greece because Roman law was universal in the empire, while Greek laws applied only to the individual city-states. For example, a Corinthian would not be expected to abide by the laws of Sparta, and a Spartan would not be expected to live by the laws of Athens. As far as technology goes the two civilizations were about equal.Your question is a tough one to answer especially in regard to laws. Rome and Greece were different peoples so their laws applied to their individual cultures. Rome would have to have an edge on Greece because Roman law was universal in the empire, while Greek laws applied only to the individual city-states. For example, a Corinthian would not be expected to abide by the laws of Sparta, and a Spartan would not be expected to live by the laws of Athens. As far as technology goes the two civilizations were about equal.Your question is a tough one to answer especially in regard to laws. Rome and Greece were different peoples so their laws applied to their individual cultures. Rome would have to have an edge on Greece because Roman law was universal in the empire, while Greek laws applied only to the individual city-states. For example, a Corinthian would not be expected to abide by the laws of Sparta, and a Spartan would not be expected to live by the laws of Athens. As far as technology goes the two civilizations were about equal.Your question is a tough one to answer especially in regard to laws. Rome and Greece were different peoples so their laws applied to their individual cultures. Rome would have to have an edge on Greece because Roman law was universal in the empire, while Greek laws applied only to the individual city-states. For example, a Corinthian would not be expected to abide by the laws of Sparta, and a Spartan would not be expected to live by the laws of Athens. As far as technology goes the two civilizations were about equal.Your question is a tough one to answer especially in regard to laws. Rome and Greece were different peoples so their laws applied to their individual cultures. Rome would have to have an edge on Greece because Roman law was universal in the empire, while Greek laws applied only to the individual city-states. For example, a Corinthian would not be expected to abide by the laws of Sparta, and a Spartan would not be expected to live by the laws of Athens. As far as technology goes the two civilizations were about equal.Your question is a tough one to answer especially in regard to laws. Rome and Greece were different peoples so their laws applied to their individual cultures. Rome would have to have an edge on Greece because Roman law was universal in the empire, while Greek laws applied only to the individual city-states. For example, a Corinthian would not be expected to abide by the laws of Sparta, and a Spartan would not be expected to live by the laws of Athens. As far as technology goes the two civilizations were about equal.Your question is a tough one to answer especially in regard to laws. Rome and Greece were different peoples so their laws applied to their individual cultures. Rome would have to have an edge on Greece because Roman law was universal in the empire, while Greek laws applied only to the individual city-states. For example, a Corinthian would not be expected to abide by the laws of Sparta, and a Spartan would not be expected to live by the laws of Athens. As far as technology goes the two civilizations were about equal.Your question is a tough one to answer especially in regard to laws. Rome and Greece were different peoples so their laws applied to their individual cultures. Rome would have to have an edge on Greece because Roman law was universal in the empire, while Greek laws applied only to the individual city-states. For example, a Corinthian would not be expected to abide by the laws of Sparta, and a Spartan would not be expected to live by the laws of Athens. As far as technology goes the two civilizations were about equal.Your question is a tough one to answer especially in regard to laws. Rome and Greece were different peoples so their laws applied to their individual cultures. Rome would have to have an edge on Greece because Roman law was universal in the empire, while Greek laws applied only to the individual city-states. For example, a Corinthian would not be expected to abide by the laws of Sparta, and a Spartan would not be expected to live by the laws of Athens. As far as technology goes the two civilizations were about equal.
What type of man would have set up the ancient laws and the modern laws?
the ancient laws were set up by God, well the only just laws. the Founding Father were Christains, our laws are based off of the ten laws of Moses.
What happens when police officer says that he is only searching for weapons and find drugs?
Anything found in the course of a lawful search will be admissible. If the weapon search was proper, the drugs are just a nice bonus
Is it lawful to bring your teacup dog in a carrier purse to malls?
Only if the mall allows animals
Is it lawful for a man in Australia to wed his widow's sister?
No it is not legal, and i hope you were only kidding, you incest freak.
Can I sponsor 2 wives in Australia?
Polygamy is not legal in Australia.You are only allowed one lawful wife.
Can police search a person after a lawful traffic stop?
Only if they have reasonable suspision or probable cause. Otherwise No.
