Is it necessary for a believer to take the Lord's Supper?

Answer 1

1. The Lord's Supper is a joint participation among disciples and between disciples and Jesus (Mt. 26:29; 1 Cor. 10:16-17; 11:27-33). The Lord's Supper is observed to "proclaim the Lord's death until he comes" (1 Cor. 11:26).

2. Jesus mentioned "the day that" he would drink the fruit of the vine again in his Father's kingdom (Mt. 26:29). Every instance of this phrase in the Greek New Testament refers to a twenty-four hour period: Mt. 13:1; 24:36; Mk. 13:32; 14:25; Lk. 10:12; 21:34; Jn. 1:39; 19:31; 20:19; Acts 2:41; 2 Thess. 1:10.

3. The joint participation is seen in the Father's kingdom. "They were devoting themselves to the teaching of the apostles and the fellowship, the breaking of the bread, and the prayers" (Acts 2:42).

4. "The day that" Jesus mentioned is specifically identified as "the first day of the week" (Acts 20:7), based on the disciples' and Paul's example. Their specific purpose for "having been assembled" is "to break bread" (Acts 20:7). The infinitive κλάσαι ("to break," indicating purpose) is used only here in the NT. There is significant meaning for a first day assembly (1 Cor. 11:17-34).

Behm affirms, "within the context of the Pauline mission, the breaking of bread, which is on the Lord's Day in Ac. 20:7, is a cultic meal, elsewhere described by Paul (1 C. 11:20) as κυριακὸν δεῖπνον (cf. Ac. 20:7: συνηγμένων ἡμῶν κλάσαι ἄρτον with 1 C. 11:33: συνερχόμενοι εἰς τὸ φαγεῖν = v. 20: συνερχομένων ὑμῶν . . . κυριακὸν δεῖπνον φαγεῖν)."1

Simply stated, Behm is showing the link between Acts 20:7, 1 Cor. 11:20 and 1 Cor. 11:33. These verses all have the concept of coming together to eat the Lord's Supper.

5. Christians are commanded to participate in the Lord's Supper (1 Cor. 11:23-26). "As often as" indicates regular frequency; as regularly as there is a first day of the week. "You proclaim the Lord's death until he comes" indicates that participation in the Lord's Supper is to continue until Jesus comes. Therefore Christians know (by command) to partake of the Lord's Supper and know (by example) when to partake of the Lord's Supper.

Some people question whether they ate the Lord's Supper on the first day of the week. The issue is raised whether they were on Jewish time or Roman time. However, we know it was the first day of the week from the text. Are we in any way to suppose they did not actually accomplish what they had assembled to do within the specified time frame of the first day of the week? No. The day is stated, giving us the example to follow. So wherever we live and whatever the first day of the week is called and whatever the time frame of the first day of the week, it is still the first day of the week. The text is clear: "On the first day of the week, our having been assembled to break bread." We are to understand they came together and accomplished this purpose on the first day of the week. No other day of the week is mentioned for the assembling together for such a purpose.

1 Johannes Behm, "κλάω," in Theological Dictionary of the New Testament, ed. Gerhard Kittel, trans. and ed. Geoffrey W. Bromiley, vol. 3 (Grand Rapids: Wm. B. Eerdmans, 1965), 730.

Answer 2

It was a command from Jesus at His final Passover meal (a Tuesday evening meal in our calendar in 31 AD, as He died on Wednesday or the daylight portion of Passover). Christians partake of bread and wine in commemoration of Christ's death. This is an annual event falling upon various days each year and not a weekly or set day of a particular week as some believe:


Luke 22:19-20New King James Version (NKJV)19 And He took bread, gave thanks and broke it, and gave it to them, saying, This is My body which is given for you; do this in remembrance of Me .20 Likewise He also took the cup after supper, saying, This cup is the new covenant in My blood, which is shed for you.

Some have used this event with other Scripture to support their beliefs for remembering this day to another set day of the week - usually an argument for the '1st day or Sunday of a week.' This is an example of 'eisegesis' - interpreting a text by reading into it one's own ideas. Though not for this question to be concerned with, there is always the 'exegesis' or critical interpretations of all Scripture.