No.
Rich, meaning to have a great deal of money or have something of high value is an adjective.
A verb is a word that describes an action (run, walk, etc), a state of being (exist, stand, etc) or occurrence (happen, become, etc).
An adjective is a word that describes a noun (the car is blue / it was a cold day / etc).
Rich is not a verb, rich is an adjective.richen is a verb, richened is the past tense.
Enrich is the verb form of rich.
The verb for "richly" would depend on the context. If you mean in terms of wealth or resources, the verb could be "to prosper" or "to accumulate." If you mean in a more descriptive sense, the verb could be "to lavish" or "to adorn."
No, rich is not a verb. But enrich is a verb, and 'to enrich' is its infinitive.
The word envy is both a noun and a verb; for example: Noun: Envy can keep you from your own goals or spur you toward them. Verb: I don't envy rich people, their lives can be very complicated.
Scheduled
Enrich or endow would be close, but there is no verb form of 'rich.' You would simply have to say 'make rich.' Here are some synonyms for enrich that would denote richness: aggrandize, enhance, embellish, adorn, sophisticate, refine, bestow, establish.
It is the past tense of the verb 'to select'. However, it may also be used as an adjective, such as 'selected vegetables may be rich in vitamin C'.
There is no verb, but rico is an adverb. Puerto means port, or harbor, and rico means rich, abundant, or affluent. So Puerto Rico then would mean rich harbor. The ending of rico changes to an "a" rather than an "o" if the noun is female rather than male. For example, Costa Rica. By the way, costa means coast, shore, or seaside, or it can mean cost, but taking it into the context of the phrase, Costa Rica means rich coast. I hope this helps you :)
Let's try!...* Who does have jump/jumped in the river? No! This doesn't make sense! * Who has jumped in the river? is OK. It is the question form of the Present Perfect tense. But 'Who has jumped in the river?' is not in the same form as the question asked.['The new students have jumped in the river!' is a possible positive statement/reply!]Let's try a different verb...* Who does have burn/burned the toast? No! This doesn't make sense either! * But 'Who has burned the toast?' would be a valid question! (Hopefully the answer is not those new students again!)So the question 'Who does have ...(something)...?' requires 'something', i.e. a noun or pronoun.For example:* Who has a rich Uncle? is a good question. * And if a teacher says: Who does have a rich Uncle? she means 'Who really has a rich Uncle?Conclusion: The question: 'Who does have ... ?' is always followed by a noun or pronoun. 'To have' is the main verb. It is not followed by another verb.
There are many nouns that are also verbs, such as fish, dance, cook, etc. There is no conversion necessary. There is also a tendency by some to use a noun as a verb. I've heard it said, "We're going to cab it to the airport." Don't do it. The most common form of converting one part of speech to another is using prefixes or suffixes. Examples: en + the adjective rich = the verb to enrich ex + the noun port = the verb to export the noun sign + ify = the verb to signify the adjective visual + ize = the verb to visualize
A phrasal verb consists of two or more words, for example: to get over, rather than the Latin based homonym: to recover. They are one of the reasons why the English language vocabulary is so rich. Phrasal verbs are of Anglo Saxon origin.