Your question assumes that the deed holder and the owner are two separate people, one or both of which have their name on the deed.
Or, the deed is held by a bank, or other entity.
Association assessments are the responsibility of the owner listed on the deed, whether the owner or deed holder is a resident or not.
Typically, the deed holder is responsible for paying Homeowner Association (HOA) fees, regardless of whether they are asked to leave by the homeowner or not. The responsibility for HOA fees is tied to the ownership of the property, not the occupancy status. So, even if the homeowner asks the deed holder to leave, they will still typically be responsible for paying any outstanding or future HOA fees until the deed is transferred to another owner. It is important to review the specific HOA rules and regulations and consult with legal professionals for accurate and personalized advice.
Homeowner insurance claims are paid to the policy holder, in a condo and the damages are being reimbursed by the association the deed and title holder gets the refund
The deed holder is responsible for paying the HOA fees.The deed holder is responsible for paying the HOA fees.The deed holder is responsible for paying the HOA fees.The deed holder is responsible for paying the HOA fees.
If it relates to a personal injury claim where the individual was injured on the policy holder's property then usually homeowner's insurance will provide compensation up to the specific amount stated in the policy.
HOMEOWNER SHOULD SIGN NOTHING...the 2nd mortgage is cut off in the foreclosure action against the 1st mortgage as it affects real property...if the 2nd mortgager holder is looking for a signature, then they should get it from the judge
Homeowner policies dont make any provisions about whether or not the policy- holder is a smoker. Your life insurance company might care if you took out a policy as a non-smoker and then started smoking.
The investor should find all liens that would be attached to the property and must be paid off by the new homeowner. Additionally, the investor should know who forecloses on the property: 1st lien, 2nd lien, Homeowner Association or any other judgment or lien holder. The title search will show all of the required information to make a rational decision. More answers can be found at the link below: blog_protitleusa_com/top_10_questions_asked_by_real_estate_investors?utm_source=yahoo&utm_medium=answer&utm_campaign=top+10
Yes, a BK does not negate foreclosure action it simply delays it. For the homeowner to avoid such action they must reach a solution such as reaffirmation of the lending contract with the mortgage holder.
That is usually determined by the laws of the state in which the residential property is located. In some instances the mortgage holder will refer to the terms of the original contract, but the homeowner can, ask assistance fromt he court if the alloted times greatly differ.
Yes. The mortgage exists as collateral for the second mortgage loan. If the second mortgage loan is not satisfied at the foreclosure sale, the second mortgage lender merely loses the collateral but not the loan and it can sue the now former homeowner for the unpaid balance. This is no different than if there is insufficient money from the sale to pay the first mortgage holder in full. The first mortgage hold can file a lawsuit later to recover the deficiency between the actual loan amount and all credits the homeowner is entitled to receive.
A duty-bearer is responsible to a rights holder and is responsible for making sure that the rights of the rights-holder are being met.
A duty-bearer is responsible to a rights holder and is responsible for making sure that the rights of the rights-holder are being met.
no not responsible, only if you are a co-signer/joint account holder