no because,only inertia is relative to first law because inertia is stay in motion or unbalanced acted upon on it.
No force, no acceleration.
I have never seen it called that before. Perhaps whoever used this name meant that it is a law that applies in our real world - as opposed to any other law which you might make up, but which doesn't apply in our world.
Newton's First Law of Motion is referred to as the Law of Inertia. It states that an object in motion will stay in motion unless acted upon by an outside force. The Second Law of Motion is the definition of Force : Force=mass x acceleration. The Third Law of Motion is the Law of Reciprocity. It states that forces come in equal and opposite pairs. "Every action has an equal and opposite reaction"
The three laws of motion are: The Law of Inertia The Law of Acceleration and The Law of Interaction.
Law of Inertia, Law of Mass and Acceleration, and the Third Law of Motion.
The three laws of motion are: The Law of Inertia The Law of Acceleration and The Law of Interaction.
law of inertia
First law: The velocity of a body remains constant unless the body is acted upon by an external force.So, if F is the net force acting on the body and ais the body's acceleration (the rate of change of its velocity) then the first law says that:"If F = 0 then a = 0."This in fact follows from Newton's second law, which states that F = ma (where m is the body's mass).
Yes, Newton's first law can be deduced from his second law. Newton's first law states that an object in motion stays in motion, and an object at rest stays at rest, unless acted upon by an external force. When applying the second law (F=ma) to an object with no external forces acting on it (F=0), we find that the acceleration (a) is zero, which means the object continues in its current state of motion, as described by the first law.
Newton's second law of motion states that the acceleration of a system is directly proportional to and in the same direction as the net external force acting on the system, and inversely proportional to its mass.so the answer is Newton's second law of motion. gimme a good raction plz
No, the law of acceleration does not apply to objects in circular motion. Instead, objects in circular motion follow the principles of centripetal acceleration and centripetal force, which keep the object moving in its circular path.
The three laws of motion are: First law (Law of Inertia): An object will remain at rest or in uniform motion unless acted upon by an external force. Second law (Law of Acceleration): The acceleration of an object is directly proportional to the net force acting on it and inversely proportional to its mass. Third law (Law of Action-Reaction): For every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction.