Is there a part of or any text in the Bible where Satan tries to manifest the logical contradiction of God's alleged omnipotence by asking Him to do impossible things?

Answer 1

Nothing is impossible for God. Jesus was/is God in Human form. Jesus performed miracles. Miracles are acts that defy logic and science. Jesus did the "impossible".

This sounds possibly like another way of stating the 'can God make a rock so heavy He cannot lift it' proposal. Certainly God can do what is impossible for man. But there are things which are impossible to God such as things which contradict His own nature. Examples of this are such as: God cannot lie. There is nothing that God cannot know, that is, He cannot be ignorant etc. His power is only limited by what is in accord with His own nature and sovereign will.

It is possible that the event alluded to is the temptation of Jesus by Satan after His baptism. Jesus manifested a perfect knowledge of scripture which Satan deliberately mis-quoted in order to get Jesus to sin. Jesus also used the scripture correctly in reply to Satan. The issue in this case was not Jesus' omnipotence as God's Son (God Himself in human form) but His willingness to what Satan wanted which would have amounted to submission to Satan and disobedience to His heavenly Father.

There is no doubt that in this case Jesus had the power to do whatever He wanted. But to here do what Satan wanted (and He was most certainly hungry) would have been wrong.

In any case there is no such thing as 'the logical contradiction of God's omnipotence'. God's omnipotence as well as His love or any other trait one wishes to mention is never exercised in isolation from all else that He is. Thus a loving God sends people to hell because He is also a God of perfect justice as well and has, in His love provided a way of escape for any who want it.

Similarly God's omnipotence is never in isolation from His sovereign will. Thus, even though on occasion He could have destroyed the nation of Israel He chose to heed Moses' intercession and spare them (or most of them). His omnipotence is exercised when and where He pleases and is not subject to the authority of mere mortals. If this were so He would then cease to be God, either in omnipotence and in sovereignty.

So, in relation to The Bible, there are no specific stories which illustrate the proposition of the question, since the Bible does not have material regarding God which is untrue, although it does record the many misdeeds and lies of men, including false ideas of men about God.

Luke 1:3737For with God nothing shall be impossible.

This verse, spoken by the angel to Mary in the context of the conception of Jesus, illustrates the principal assumed in all of scripture.

Direct answerNo.

The Bible does not have any record of such a test. The closest it gets are attempted tests of God's power over the natural world (which are not tests of omnipotence, and are never met - the challenge is dismissed with "thou shalt not test the Lord thy god", implying that either God refuses to be tested or that God is inherently untestable).