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To get things into perspective, you need to look more closely at the current spelling of stimulus (which is correct) and the spelling you offer (which is incorrect) Now we can get going. An aural stimulus to a blind person is naturally going to be greater than to a sighted human-being, as we mix both of the things we see with the things hear to form what we consider to be a complete picture. Take the Spanish painter Goya; he became deaf during the course of his life and maybe as a result of this disability, his world became wholly visual (not that he composed any music in his spare time) and the more extreme emotions that feature in his paintings may well be as a direct consequence of his isolation from the sounds and vibrations of his world about him at that time. Similarly, a hearing-impaired individual relies on signage, lip-reading to an extent that a hearing person could not begin to understand. To quote from a famous quote, the situation in each and every case depends entirely on your point-of-view, unless, of course, you don't have one. Every new-born infant sees many stimuli from Day one, and stores them in their subconcious memory. Those same stimuli can be recalled years later, but as to how powerful they are and why is probably going to have to be an unanswered question except when grouped with the association of one object/feeling/emotion/sensation with another. Look no further than Brave New World to explore and ponder on conditioning starting from a very early age.

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Q: Is visual stimulous more powerful than auditory stimulous?
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