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One appeasement after another to Germany led to Germany finally overstepping its bounds when they invaded this country that officially begins World War 2.?
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Was Britain and France appeasement reasonable?
According to some, appeasement was reasonable because Great Britain and France were in no shape to fight another war with Germany. The only other option was appeasement, which allowed Germany to take control of the Sudetenland. Some say that it encouraged Germany to demand even more, but to most officials in France and Great Britain, appeasement was the most reasonable solution.
Was the British Policy of appeasement mainly responsible for the outbreak of war in 1939?
The outbreak of another world war in 1939 was in part caused by the British appeasement-policy of the 1930s. Other factors were responsible, as well, such as the intentional and determined aggression of Germany.
Why did Britain follow a policy of appeasement?
Britain exercised a policy of appeasement with Hitler because initially, his demands were reasonable. The belief was that if appeasement was used, he would eventually become satisfied and stop his aggression. The British Prime Minister, Neville Chamberlain believed that appeasement was the appropriate tactic.
Why did Britain and France give up the policy of appeasement?
The UK were obliged to take part in appeasement as much of the interest at the time was in the empire and so were not in an easy position to take part in Europe, known as imperial over-stretch. The other reason that they took an appeasement policy is the international population felt the reparations from WW1 had been too much, so were sympathetic towards Germany.
Why was the policy of appeasement a benefit to Hitler?
because of the appeasement policy Hitler can do anything he wanted to do because France and Britain will do nothing to stop him because they don't want to have another world war
Was Britain and France appeasement reasonable?
According to some, appeasement was reasonable because Great Britain and France were in no shape to fight another war with Germany. The only other option was appeasement, which allowed Germany to take control of the Sudetenland. Some say that it encouraged Germany to demand even more, but to most officials in France and Great Britain, appeasement was the most reasonable solution.
Why England and Francefollowed the pollicy of appeasement towards Germany after World War 1?
They could not afford to enter into another war if Germany reacted badly to not getting what it wanted.
Why was appeasement a logical strategy?
England and France did not wish to engage Germany in another war. Letting Germany take over a country or two seemed reasonable at the time to the leaders of France and Britain.
What did France and England do when Germany started taking control of German-speaking countries?
No one wanted another WW so FRA and ENG faveored appeasement (Giving in to the demands for peace). It was the invasion of Poland that finally proved the ineffectiveness of the Appeasement
Was the British Policy of appeasement mainly responsible for the outbreak of war in 1939?
The outbreak of another world war in 1939 was in part caused by the British appeasement-policy of the 1930s. Other factors were responsible, as well, such as the intentional and determined aggression of Germany.
What were the effects of the appeasement policy towards Germany?
a. Germany was able to invade the Soviet Union. b. Germany stopped its expansion into other countries. c. France and England went to war with one another. d. Germany continued to take other countries
Why did Britain follow a policy of appeasement?
Britain exercised a policy of appeasement with Hitler because initially, his demands were reasonable. The belief was that if appeasement was used, he would eventually become satisfied and stop his aggression. The British Prime Minister, Neville Chamberlain believed that appeasement was the appropriate tactic.
Why did Britain and France give up the policy of appeasement?
The UK were obliged to take part in appeasement as much of the interest at the time was in the empire and so were not in an easy position to take part in Europe, known as imperial over-stretch. The other reason that they took an appeasement policy is the international population felt the reparations from WW1 had been too much, so were sympathetic towards Germany.
Why did Germany reoccupy the Rhineland in 1936?
in 1936 Germany re-militarised the Rhineland because it was just another way of implementing the force of redaction onto other countries so that chamberlain followed the policy of appeasement :) for more info, try google :p
Was the appeasement policy effective in preventing war in Europe?
Prior to World War II, the diplomatic policy of appeasement was in fact an effective way to avoid general war. For much of the 1930s, appeasement succeeded in holding off any conflict comparable to World War I. Whether this policy was wise is another question, for some have argued that a harder stance towards Germany in the 1930s could have led to a much quicker, less expansive war.
When did the appeasement happen?
Appeasement took place due to the public opinion,fear that another war would take place and military and economic reasons.
What policy is the of accepting imposed conditions by one country to avoid combat with another?
appeasement
