No, because that would inevitably lead to a huge 'can of worms' that no country on earth would honestly want opened. - Should Italy pay reparations for the carnage the Roman armies caused all over Europe, - Should the US Government pay for it's cruel and shameful treatment of Army prisoners in the US Civil War, - Should Turkey pay reparations for the millions of Armenians it has killed, - Should Russia pay for the millions of poor peasants it put into slavery, - Should Germany pay for the millions of Jews and Gypsies they murdered in WW2, - Should Japan pay for it's horrific treatment of WW2 military prisoners against the Geneva Convention . Where would it end, except making millions of lawyers even richer.
because of the money Britain was getting from the slave trade
Britain dominated the Atlantic slave trade.
Yes but so should all the other countries :S
Slave trade in Britain was outlawed in 1808 when Parliament passed the Slave Trade Act of 1807. However, this did not slavery altogether. The Slavery Abolition Act of 1833 abolished slavery in most British Empires.
1456
They
Captain John Hawkins started the British slave trade in 1562. It came to America in 1619. The British got out of the slave trade in 1807.
It was abolished by the Slavery Abolishion act in 1833.
Slavery was abolished in Britain in 1833. The Slave Trade Act of 1807 officially ended the slave trade in Britain, but did not end slavery for the people already enslaved there.
because it gave them more money
When William Wilberforce and the abolitionists began their fight against the slave trade in the late 18th century, a significant portion of Britain's economy was intertwined with it. It is estimated that by the early 1800s, around 15% of Britain's economic activity was linked to the slave trade and the profits generated from the colonies. Key industries, such as sugar and textiles, heavily relied on slave labor, making the abolitionist movement a challenging endeavor due to the economic interests at stake.
increasing the demand for goods