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Should morality be considered a sufficient basis for defining particular conduct as criminal?
Wiki User
∙ 12y ago
In a court of law, morality does not overtly come into play. However, since most everyone HAS been raised with some type of moral code imbued in them, it invariably probably subconsciously enters into the deliberations made by the jury.
Further: Consider for instance: The case of Roe v. Wade (Reproductive Rights).
The morals of many people are offended by the right, under law, of a woman to make her own reprooductive decisions.
Yet, other perople's morals are equally offended by the thought of government legislating into law, a statute law that controls or restricts a woman's right to choose this procedure.
Conundrum!! WHO'S moral "rights" are superior under law?
Wiki User
∙ 12y ago
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