No. By the time Mexico fought at the Battle of Puebla or Cinco de Mayo (May 5th, 1862) against France, Texas had already been lost to the United States (since 1836).
Cinco de Mayo is widely celebrated in Texas due to the large Mexican-American population found in such state.
The Battle of Puebla.
1862 (May 5th).
war between France and Mexico , Puebla
On the Battle of Puebla, which took place on May 5, 1862.
6,000
Because the Spanish won a battle against the French in Puebla, Mexico on May 5, 1862.
Not at all; while Texas is a state belonging to the United States, Mexico is an independent country south of the US. Confusion may arise because from 1821 until 1836, Texas used to be a territory of Mexico, but after the Texas Revolution (1835-1836) and the Mexican-American War (1846-1848) it became part of the US. Hence, it shares many cultural and demographic traits with Mexico.
Well, Cinco de Mayo means in Spanish the 5th of May, but the Battle of Puebla which the holiday commemorates happened in 1862.
On May 5, 1862, during the Battle of Puebla, approximately 6,000 French soldiers attempted to capture the forts held by Mexican forces. This battle was part of the larger French intervention in Mexico, where the French aimed to establish a monarchy under Maximilian I. Despite being outnumbered, Mexican troops successfully defended the forts, marking a significant victory for Mexico.
The Texas Revolution effectively ended with the signing of the Treaties of Velasco on May 14 and May 26, 1836. These treaties were agreements between the Republic of Texas and Mexico, following the decisive Texian victory at the Battle of San Jacinto. The treaties recognized Texas' independence from Mexico, although Mexico never formally acknowledged this independence.
France, during the Battle of Puebla or Cinco de Mayo (May 5th, 1862).
Probably yes considering North America was claimed as part of the British Empire. Mexico controlled it in the early 18th century so I may be wrong!