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The question as posed is nonsensical. Spain has never been a united nation-state. Most Spaniards outside of historic Castilla see themselves as Spanish nationals, but not ethnic Spaniards (i.e. they are Catalan Spaniards, Andalusian Spaniards, Basque Spaniards, Galician Spaniards, etc.). In order to have a nation-state, the state must represent a single dominant ethnicity and attempt to create laws and systems that mirror its culture. As Spain does not have this, it cannot be a nation-state.

Spain existed as a formal monarchical union of Castilla-León, which was a strong federal monarchy, with Aragón which was a confederal monarchy, but was not anything more than the binding of two very distinct countries. For example, even though the union occurred in the late 1400s, the laws of different areas were not homogenized until the mid-1800s, for example.

If the question is asking what allowed Castilla-León and Aragón to become one unified monarchy, it was simply the marriage of Ferdinand of Aragón to Isabel of Castilla.

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