It didn't. Trade disputes played no part in the causes of WW 1.
No. Revolutionary War- 1776. WW 2 1941
Both of the world wars had multiple causes. In the case of WW I there were two very big alliances in Europe, competing for domination of Europe and the world (at that period in history, most of the world was in some way colonized by Europe). There were also separatist movements which were a destabilizing influence; the direct cause of WW I was the assassination of the Archduke Franz Ferdinand of Austro-Hungary by a Serbian separatist. There was also a long-standing territorial dispute between France and Germany over the province of Alsace-Lorraine, which was part of France prior to WW I and which Germany wished to seize from France. Those were the main causes of WW I. The main cause of WW II was simply that Germany and its allies were not satisfied with the results of WW I and wanted a rematch. Economic problems resulting from the Great Depression were making everybody very bellicose as well. People thought that they could solve their problems through war. And actually, WW II did provide a great economic stimulus. But the cost was extremely high.
Total Deaths range between 62,394,200 to 78,339,200.
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2= N of WW= 2 nations of world war
ww in ww1 or 2 stands for world war
The genotypes produced from a cross between Ww and Ww would be: WW Ww Ww ww -The cross between these two genotypes would produce gametes with genotypes in a 1:2:1 ratio.
The cold war came after WW 2 and the atomic bombings were the cause the war ended.
ostly cause things ar just hevy but that 2
Romania was not conquered in WW 2; Romania was occupied by Soviet Union after a disastrous armistice.
Yes, for example: WW 1 , WW 2.
Germany was in WW I and WW II.
There are 2 ww pts in rye bread
Poland didn't necessarily start WW2. It was their vow to not fall to the Nazis so easily. It was the Nazis invasion OF Poland that started World War 2.
1 cup of cheerios is 2 WW points
Mostly (in recent history) its WW 1 and WW 2 record and the Holocaust.