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What did Neville Chamberlain said after the Munich Conference?
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What did british prime minister Neville chamberlain give to Hitler in munich Germany in 1938?
Chamberlain gave Hitler a piece of paper, which was not to have any quarrels with any other countries and invade them. He also said if you do have any disputes and want to solve them, by using military force - run it by himself (Neville Chamberlain) first rather than doing whatever as well being a expansionist and a opportunist.
What is ''appeasement'' and how did this apply to the Sudetenland in Czechoslovakia?
Appeasement at the time was basically Neville Chamberlain doing everything in his power to make Adolf Hitler happy and avoid another world war. Appeasement applied to Sudetenland in Czechoslovakia because Chamberlain and Hitler met in Munich, where they both signed the Munich Pact which in simple terms said that Germany would not attack and destroy Czechoslovakia (which would cause world war) if they annexed Sudetenland (which had a majority German population). It also said that Germany and Great Britain would "never go to war again." Chamberlain didn't want war so he signed it, and Hitler signed it but when he returned home he told his foreign affairs minister that "that" piece of paper meant nothing.
Peace in your time speech by Clement Atlee 1939?
Nope: Chamberlain returned from Munich in 1938, holding a 'piece of paper' & said 'Peace in our time'. On a scale of 1 to 10 for being incorrect it rates about 11. But that is not to say he was wrong to try to avoid war....
What did Hitler do to bring Britain and France into World War 2?
Adolf Hitler attacked Poland so Neville Chamberlain (the president of England at the start of world war 2) said to Germany "If you are not ready to withdraw your troops from Poland a state of war will exist between us."
Why did England appease Hitler?
"You seriously need to check your history. England (Britain in fact, not just England) NEVER gave in to Hitler." Actually, I think the problem here is the way the person worded the question. It is indeed correct to say England did not "give in" (as in surrender), but many people felt that Neville Chamberlain, whose policy as prime minister was to appease Hitler, gave in to him. Chamberlain truly believed that he could bargain with Hitler and that Hitler would compromise. Hitler, of course, had NO intention to compromise, and when Chamberlain came back home to England claiming he had basically prevented a war, and that there would be "peace in our time," he found out all too soon that Hitler had no intention of compromising, nor did he want peace. Chamberlain's serious mistake was trying to appease Hitler, and as I said, many people saw that as "giving in" to him.
What did Neville chamberlain boast of when he returned to England from the conference in munich in 1938?
He said that the agreement meant 'Peace for our time'.
Where in Germany was the appeasement argreement signed?
'Peace in our Time' said Chamberlain when he returned from Munich.
What did british prime minister Neville chamberlain give to Hitler in munich Germany in 1938?
Chamberlain gave Hitler a piece of paper, which was not to have any quarrels with any other countries and invade them. He also said if you do have any disputes and want to solve them, by using military force - run it by himself (Neville Chamberlain) first rather than doing whatever as well being a expansionist and a opportunist.
What phrase did the British Prime Minister use to describe the Munich Conference?
The PM of the time, Neville Chamberlain, declared the Conference to have declared 'Peace in our time' when he returned from Munich in 1938. The Munich Summit had been held following Nazi Germany's annexation of Austria (which, it has to be said, was wanted by most Austrians anyway as many were themselves ardent Nazis), and it's invasion and occupation of Czechoslovakia. Other European nations were terrified that they were going to be next on Hitler's list for takeover, and could in no way match the military might of Nazi Germany- with the possible exception of France, which could only hold out temporarily and not for long. The conference was thus called to ensure that Hitler signed a Declaration agreeing not to expand German occupation to any further nations, or otherwise face war with Britain and France. He did so, and Chamberlain believed that a great political breakthrough had been achieved. But he was naive in imagining that Hitler could be trusted- the following year, Hitler broke his promise and invaded Poland at the beginning of September '39, forcing Chamberlain to declare war on 3rd September.
What is ''appeasement'' and how did this apply to the Sudetenland in Czechoslovakia?
Appeasement at the time was basically Neville Chamberlain doing everything in his power to make Adolf Hitler happy and avoid another world war. Appeasement applied to Sudetenland in Czechoslovakia because Chamberlain and Hitler met in Munich, where they both signed the Munich Pact which in simple terms said that Germany would not attack and destroy Czechoslovakia (which would cause world war) if they annexed Sudetenland (which had a majority German population). It also said that Germany and Great Britain would "never go to war again." Chamberlain didn't want war so he signed it, and Hitler signed it but when he returned home he told his foreign affairs minister that "that" piece of paper meant nothing.
Explain what ouccurred in Munich with the signing o the Munich pact?
Well, the signing of the Munich pact was just a stand so Britain and France could save their own butts from a potential WWII. It was the act of appeasing Germany. So basically it didn't work and WWII happened. It can be said that the Munich Pact just gave Hitler something to nibble on, but he became hungry again. Ill explain. There was some land surrounding western Czechoslovakia called the Sudetenland, where many Germans inhabited. Because of this fact, Hitler wanted the Sudetenland as part of his territories. He used the faux excuse that there were Germans being executed there and brought it up in the Munich Pact. So, Hitler was backed into a corner, but Mussolini came and said, (I'm paraphrasing) "Hitler, my friend why don't you ask Eduard Daladier, and Neville Chaimberlain to come to Munich and we'll get your territories there" Daladier was from France and Chamberlain was from G. Britain. SO in order to prevent WWII France and G. Britain decided to eventually give the Sudetenland to Germany against Czechoslovakia's protests and they signed the Munich Pact. Hitler said he wouldn't take any more land and war was not possible. BUT in a few months after the signing of the Munich Pact Hitler took over Czechoslovakia and WWII began more months later. The Munich Pact was seen as a sign of weakness by Winston Churchill of G. Britain and others as an act by Chamberlain. (all my words)
Winston churchill opposed Neville chamberlain's policy of appeasement which he deemed?
Winston Churchill opposed Neville Chamberlain's policy of appeasement because he saw and new what Hitler was doing and new that he was getting stronger, he stood up and said this but was the only one who did so...He didint say appeasement was a bad idea he just thought after Hitler had broken his promises a couple of times he thought that they should have stopped and used aggression and stopped Hitler while they could.
Does World War 2 justify its cause?
Yes, World War 2 does justify its cause. Neville Chamberlain had said to Adolf Hitler that if you invade Poland there will be War. Of course, Hitler ignored this and England's prime minister at the time then declared war.
What did the German Army of World War 2 learn from its experiences in Austria Poland Czechoslovakia and Spain?
When Adolf Hitler invaded Czechoslovakia, a man called Neville Chamberlain gave Adolf a part of Czechoslovakia and Neville said to Adolf to take this part of Czechoslovakia and don't ask for more. But of course after a while Adolf took the whole of Czechoslovakia. Then he went on to invade Poland.
Peace in your time speech by Clement Atlee 1939?
Nope: Chamberlain returned from Munich in 1938, holding a 'piece of paper' & said 'Peace in our time'. On a scale of 1 to 10 for being incorrect it rates about 11. But that is not to say he was wrong to try to avoid war....
Why is it said that Voldemort could have used Neville to ressurrect himself?
It is not about Voldemort using Neville to resurrect himself, but it is said that he could have chosen Neville as his enemy. And in that case he would have been the "Chosen one" instead of Harry. It is said so because according to a prophecy, Voldemort's enemy will be born in July and to parents who'd disobey the Dark Lord thrice and both, Harry and Neville fall into the criteria. So it was a possibility that Neville would have been the chosen one.
What is the third largest city in Germany?
Munich. The largest is Berlin. 2nd is Hamburg and 3rd is, as said Munich.
