Law & Legal Issues
History of England
History of the United States
Magna Carta

What did the law state by the English Parliament in 1647?

Top Answer
User Avatar
Wiki User
Answered 2007-12-25 02:10:05

In June 1647, Parliament passed legislation abolishing Christmas and other holidays: "Forasmuch as the feast of the nativity of Christ, Easter, Whitsuntide, and other festivals, commonly called holy-days, have been heretofore superstitiously used and observed; be it ordained, that the said feasts, and all other festivals, commonly called holy-days, be no longer observed as festivals; any law, statute, custom, constitution, or canon, to the contrary in anywise not withstanding."

User Avatar

Your Answer


Still Have Questions?

Related Questions

In 1647 English parliament passed what law?

Made Christmas Illegal

In 1647 English parliament passed a law that did what to Christmas?

banned anyone from celebrating it in England (random guess as they were mainly Puritans)

What year did parliament pass law making Christmas illegal?


In 1647, the English parliament passed a law that?

granted privileges for the encouragement of Adventurers to plantations in Virginia, Bermudas, Barbados, and other places of America.

Is it true that in 1647 a law was passed making it illegal to celebrate Christmas?

yes it is. in June of 1647, the english parlament created a law that banned christmas, as well as all "holy-days"...holidays

What state passed the first law for public education?

Massachusetts in 1647

English law-making body?

the English lawmaking body is Parliament.

English colonist were not represented in which law making body?


Which law making body were English colonists were not represented by?


English colonist were not represented in which law-making body?


English colonists were not represented in which law-making body?


Who banned Christmas 1647 - 1660?

In 1647, The English Parliament passed a law that made Christmas illegal. Christmas festivities were banned by Puritan leader Oliver Cromwell, who considered feasting and revelry on what was suppose to be a holy day to be immoral. Anyone caught celebrating was arrested. The ban was only lifted when the Puritans lost power in 1660. However, the Puritans in America banned Christmas between 1659 and 1681.

What was the lawmaking body of English called?

Im pretty sure the English law amking body is the British Parliament

When did the Massachusetts puritans pass the first public education law?

In 1647

Which article empowers parliament to formulate law on State list subjects?


Why did the us congress never adopt the English common law?

The US did adopt the English Common Law, the only state that does not have the English Common Law is Louisiana.

Is common law the body of law?

"Common law" had been the body of the law prior to the advent of legislative bodies such as Parliament in England, Congress in the United States and the legislatures in the states. The only state that does not follow English common law is Louisiana, which follows the French civil law. At present, statutory law constitutes the main body of the law.

When did the Massachusetts puritians pass the first public education law?

They passed it in 1647.

What forms the basis of English law?

Common law, which is the original laws and conventions and statute which are laws laid down my parliament and interpreted by the judiciary in the form of case law

Who makes laws in UK?

There are three law making bodies in the UK. The 'Westminster' Parliament makes English law (which currently includes Wales) as well as some UK wide law. The 'Stormont' assembly makes laws in NI and the 'Holyrood' Parliament makes Scots law.

Why is there not a prime minister of England?

There is no prime minister of England because the prime minister of Great Britain serves as the prime minister of England. One extremely peculiar situation results when the Scottish members of parliament get to vote on English law but the English members of parliament have no say so on Scottish law. Scotland uses Roman Law and not English Law. However, most nations using Roman Law are changing to English Law in civil cases. As a result, Scotland will probably drop Roman law for civil cases and start using English Law in civil cases. Answer North West English were supposed to have their own Assembly under devolution but the British Government changed their minds. I believe the reason for this was because the British Government were concerned this could lead to a vote for English independence from the Union which if carried would leave the British Government in a state limbo.

What colony set up a law school in 1647 and the first college Harvard in 1636?


How As a result of the 1647 Massachusetts public education law who pay teacher wages?

each community

What is the role of the crown at state level parliament?

One of the main roles of the governor ( the representative of the crown at the state level) is to give royal assent to acts of parliament. Royal assent is the signing of a proposed law. It is necessary before an act of parliament can become law. It uis normally given as a matter of course on the advice of the prime ministers and ministers.

What did the English Bill of Rights 1689 not say?

The English Bill of Rights of 1689 did NOT: a. specify that Parliament had to consent to raising an army in peacetime. b. specify that Parliament had to be called "frequently." c. give the vote to all adult males. d. specify that Parliament had to consent to changes in law.