When does he use it? He certainly uses "been" (which means "been"). An apostrophe indicates that some letters have been left out: "possess'd" means "possessed", "wond'ring" means "wondering". What word might this be? "Between"? I have never heard of Shakespeare writing "between" as "b'een"
Shakespeare cannot be mean - he has been dead for centuries.
Shakespeare wrote in English. "The" means exactly the same when he used it as it does when you use it.
It means potbellied.
no
Waxen means made of wax. Its meaning has not changed since Shakespeare used it.
Used to express distaste or disapproval.
What do you mean if Shakespeare have it? If you mean does Shakespeare have what it takes, then yes. He should any way.
Yes. Forks have been around for centuries and by the 1500's they were used regularly.
Yup
E've was used in Shakespeare's plays to be a shorten form of the word we've. We've is already a contraction but e've was a more popular use in his time.
He was a gentleman; his father had been given a coat of arms.
When you say "Shakespeare's Globe" you mean the theatre built in 1997. It is not used for musical performance. The Globe Playhouse (which should not be referred to as "Shakespeare's Globe" since this is the name of the modern theatre) which was built in 1599 was not, as far as we know, used for musical performance either.