E've was used in Shakespeare's plays to be a shorten form of the word we've. We've is already a contraction but e've was a more popular use in his time.
What do you mean if Shakespeare have it? If you mean does Shakespeare have what it takes, then yes. He should any way.
Shakespeare cannot be mean - he has been dead for centuries.
Shakespeare was born in 1564, if that's what you mean. That was the year he started being Shakespeare.
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Eve Leoff has written: 'William Shakespeare's A midsummer night's dream'
What do you mean if Shakespeare have it? If you mean does Shakespeare have what it takes, then yes. He should any way.
Shakespeare cannot be mean - he has been dead for centuries.
Adam and Eve. We know about Shakespeare's ancestors for one or two generations before, but much beyond that is sheer speculation. One could probably name Boadicea or some other figure of the distant past as a possible ancestor of Shakespeare but that is hardly the same as their being likely ancestors. If it is possible that there was such a couple as Adam and Eve, then it's possible that they were Shakespeare's ancestors.
When people say Shakespeare they mean William Shakespeare the playwright. There was only ever one of him.
Shakespeare was born in 1564, if that's what you mean. That was the year he started being Shakespeare.
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It means "celebrate the eve" (for ex : new year's eve, or Christmas eve)
Sorry, Shakespeare did not use that word.
if you mean Adam and eve(in The Bible) they did die after god sent them out of the garden of eden
eve