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two equal lobes.
Temporal refers to a physical existence. Non-temporal would be spiritual.
Pavlov's law would be 'The Law of Temporal Contiguity'. The law would mean if the the between the conditioned stimuli and unconditioned stimuli is too big and great for the entity to withhold, then learning will not occur.
If there is, we haven't found it yet! I'm not a brain expert in any way, but have read around the subject. Long ago, a couple of hundred years, anyway, scientists tried weighing people at the moment of death to see if they could figure out what the soul weighed. The inaccuracy of the scales tended to prove nothing much, however. The human brain seems to be more diverse, rather like distributed computer processing. People with certain types of epilepsy, particularly temporal lobe epilepsy, often report spiritual experiences, often, but not exclusively, just before a seizure. Does this mean that the experiences aren't therefore valid? I don't think that can be said - maybe there is access to something special in those moments. There are some people who believe that St Paul (who had the vision on the road to Damascus) may have suffered this form of epilepsy. LSD and other hallucinogenics are well-known for inducing similar experiences .... It seems clear that some people are more likely to have spiritual experiences than others, but I don't think there is any consensus as to why. So no answer to the question, but maybe a couple of interesting avenues for research? --- It is possible that the temporal lobes play some role in spirituality in that they can cause odd beliefs if they are damaged, and that is the part of the brain where seizures take place. The profrontal cortex is implicated in conditions like schizophrenia, so a person could be suffering insanity and assume God or other deities is speaking to them.
navegador mean
symmetric nephrograms
two equal lobes.
If it is a symmetric distribution, the median must be 130.
Temporal refers to a physical existence. Non-temporal would be spiritual.
Mean
Yes, they can.Yes, they can. In a symmetric distribution they will be the same.
No. The mean and median are not necessarily the same. They will be the same if the distribution is symmetric but the converse is not necessarily true. That is to say, a distribution does not have to be symmetric for the mean and median to be the same. For example, the mean and median of {1, 1, 5, 6, 12} are both 5 but the distribution is NOT symmetric.
In a symmetric distribution, the mean and the median are the same. Otherwise there is no relation. In symmetric distributions with only one mode, the mode will coincide with the mean and median, but otherwise there is no relation.
it means muscle wasting
There is some shrinking (atrophy) throughout (diffuse) the organ being studied and it is not severe (mild).
yes
a condition marked by symmetric cyanosis of the extremities.