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An Achaemenian is a person who was a member of the dynasty which ruled the Persian empire between c. 550-330 BCE.
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What has the author A E Cowley written?
A. E. Cowley has written: 'Aramaic Papyri of the Fifth Century B.C. (Ancient Texts and Translations)' 'Jewish documents of the time of Ezra' -- subject(s): Accessible book, Achaemenian inscriptions, Antiquities, History, Jews, Manuscripts, Aramaic (Papyri), Old Persian inscriptions
The imperial plate of Persia 1971?
1971 marked the 2,500th anniversary of the founding of the Persian Empire. The plate is of Spode fine bone china, 10 1/2" in diameter and is decorated with 22 carat gold and rich enamels. The design, by Harold Holdway, Spode's art director, symbolizes the anniversary by representing the present day Persian Empire in the form of the coat of arms of the pahlavi Dynasty and the origins of the empire in the border with a design inspired by Achaemenian art. This border is based upon the cavetto cornices above the doorways of the private palace of Darius the Great at Persepolis and rests on a rich ground of turquoise, Persia's Imperial color. It is completed by an outer border of the rosettes which were the most likely used of Achaemenian symbols. The plate is in perfect condition, we do not have the original box but there is the original folder that describes the plate and its symbolism.
What are facts about darius king of Persia?
- Darius murdered Gaumata and in his own person restored the royal line. - Though Darius was an excellent soldier and extended his empire east, north, and into Europe, he saw himself as an organizer and lawgiver rather than as a mere conqueror. - Darius established a system of well-maintained all-weather roads and a royal courier system with post-houses and regular relays of horses and riders in Persia. - Darius, himself a firm supporter of Ahura Mazda, the Zoroastrian god, said in the Behistun inscription that Ahura Mazda "gave" him his kingdoms, and with him Zoroastrianism became something like the national religion of the Persians. For the empire, however, he continued Cyrus's policy of toleration of local cults, and this mildness became and remained, except perhaps under Xerxes, a distinctive feature of Persian rule.\ - Darius I "the Great" (549-486 BCE) was a king of Persia who ruled for 35 years, from September 522 BCE to October 486 BCE. He was the third Achaemenian king and was considered by many to be "the greatest of the Achaemenian kings." During his reign, Darius completed the work of his predecessors, and not only did he "hold together the empire," but he also extended it in all directions. Thus, with Darius as Great King, Achaemenian Persia became the largest empire in the world.
Was Pakistan part of the Ancient Persian Achaemenian Empire?
Ancient Pakistan's history unravels itself with the Persians under Darius (522 B.C.- 486 B.C.) who made this region a province of Achaemenian Empire (or may be earlier under his grand-father Cyrus). Darius affirms this in his inscriptions at Persepolis and Naksh-e-Rustam mentioning Hapta Hindva (seven rivers) as a province of his Empire. The conquered provinces of the Punjab and Sindh were considered to be the richest and most populous satrapy of the Empire, to the revenues of which they were required to pay the enormous tribute of a million sterling. This 15th (20th) Satrapy of Darius' Empire extended up to Beas - almost the same area as now covered by the Islamic Republic of Pakistan. A Pakistani contingent fought in Xerxes' army on his expedition to Ancient Greece. Herodotus mentions that the Indus satrapy supplied cavalry and chariots to the Persian army. He also mentions that the Indus people were clad in armaments made of cotton, carried bows and arrows of cane covered with iron. Herodotus states that in 517 B.C. Darius sent an expedition under Scylax to explore the Indus.As part of the Persian Empire, Pakistan had a flourishing economy; inter-regional trade developed considerably and several caravan cities sprang up. Charsadda on the Peshawar road and Taxila near Rawalpindi were supposed to have been two of the many centres of trade and intellectual activity during the pax-Persica of the latter half of the 6th century B.C."The materials available to the scholar today indicate that the northwestern part of the sub-continent was an economically advanced province in the last centuries of the first millennium B.C. to the early first millennium of our era. Herodotus describes the Indians inhabiting the part of the sub-continent under the Achaemenids as the most numerous of all peoples known to him, a people who "paid (to the Achaemenids) a tribute which was great in Comparison to the others." (The Peoples of Pakistan). As such, as part of the Achaemenian Empire she became involved in Middle East politics. Since Darius had defeated the Greeks extending the western frontiers of his Empire up to River Danube, and since Pakistani troops had participated in this campaign and in another war against Greece under Xerxes (486-465 B.C.), when Alexander came out to take revenge for his country's previous defeats he made it a point to attack and annex Pakistan. The fact that Pakistan was part of the Persian Empire till Alexander's time is proved by the call which Darius III, the last of the Achaemenian dynasty was able to issue to troops of the satrapy when making his final stand at Arbela to resist the Greek invasion of Persia by Alexander. According to the historian, Arrian, some of the forces of Indus people were grouped with their neighbours, the Bactrians and the Sogdians, under the command of the satrap of Bactria at Arbela against Alexander.An important point to be noted here is that even during the period Pakistan was under the Achaemenian Empire from the time of Darius, about 500 B.C. to the arrival of Alexander in 327 B.C., i.e., a span of almost two hundred years, it enjoyed complete autonomy. Its administration was under several local rulers (rajas) who merely acknowledged the suzerainty of the Persians. During the last days of the Achaemenians when the monarchy had become decadent autonomy was asserted to a still greater extent."Alexander's invasion of the Punjab (326 B.C.) is sometimes mentioned as marking the beginning of Greek influence upon the Indian continent. Though this statement is in a sense true, it is probably more accurate to say that because the Achaemenian Empire included the north-west and Alexander took it over in conquering that empire, it was natural that Hellenism, on developing in that Empire after Alexander's time, should enter the North-West. (Present-day Pakistan).
What has the author Theodor Benfey written?
Theodor Benfey was a German orientalist and philologist known for his work in Sanskrit studies. He is best known for his research on Indian literature and Sanskrit grammar, as well as for his contributions to the field of comparative linguistics.
What is the significance of persepolis?
Though evidence of prehistoric settlement at Persepolis has been discovered, inscriptions indicate that construction of the city began under Darius I the Great(reigned 522--486 BC). As a member of a new branch of the royal house, Darius made Persepolis the new capital of Persia (replacing Pasargadae, the burial place of Cyrus the Great).Built in a remote and mountainous region, Persepolis was an inconvenient royal residence, visited mainly in the spring. The effective administration of the Achaemenian Empire was carried on from Susa, Babylon, or Ecbatana. This accounts for the Greeks being unacquainted with Persepolis until Alexander the Great's invasion of Asia.In 330 BC, Alexander the Great plundered the city and burned the palace of Xerxes, probably to symbolize the end of his Panhellenic war of revenge. In 316 BC Persepolis was still the capital of Persis as a province of the Macedonian empire, but the city gradually declined in the Seleucid period and after. In the 3rd century AD the nearby city of Istakhr became the centre of the Sasanian empire. Today, relatively well-preserved ruins attest to Persepolis' ancient glory.
What is the meaning of raman?
Persian origin fromancient Zoroastrian calenders:Raman= (Ramesh meaning peace)see belowIranian Calendar Systems, History and Origins By: Massoume Price, December 2001(http:/www.iranchamber.com/calendar/articles/calendar_systems_origins.php)The first calendars based on Zoroastrian cosmology appeared during the later Achaemenian period and though they have evolved and changed over the centuries the names of the months have remained more or less the same till now. Before this period old Persian inscriptions and tablets indicate that early Iranians used a 360-day calendar based on Babylonian system modified according to their own beliefs with their own name days. Month was divided into two or three divisions depending on the phases of the moon. Twelve months were named for various festivals or activities of the pastoral year with 30 days in each month. A thirteenth month every six years was added to keep the 360-day calendar in harmony with the seasons. Under the unified empire of the Achaemenian it was necessary to create a distinctive Iranian calendar based on Zoroastrian beliefs.In the new calendar following the Egyptian tradition the twelve months and the thirty days were each dedicated to a yazata (Eyzad) with four divisions resembling the Semitic week. Four of the days in the month were dedicated to Ahura Mazda and seven days were named after the six Amesha Spentas. Other thirteen days were named after Fire, the Waters, Sun, Moon, Tiri and Geush Urvan (the soul of all animals), Mithra, Sraosha (Soroush, yazata of prayer), Rashnu (the Judge), Fravashis, Verethraghna (Bahram), Raman (Ramesh meaning peace), and Vata the wind deity. Three were dedicated to female deities, Daena (yazata of religion and personified conscious), Ashi (yazata of fortune) and Arshtat (justice). The remaining four were dedicated to Asman (lord of sky or Heaven), Zam (Earth goddess) and finally Manthra Spenta (the Bounteous Sacred Word, a female deity) and Anaghra Raoch (the 'Endless Light' of paradise).The religious importance of the calendar dedications was very significant. Not only it fixed the pantheon of major deities, but ensured that their names were continuously uttered, since at every Zoroastrian act of worship the deities of both day and month are invoked. With the new system the pattern of festivities became clear as well, Mitrakanna or Mihregan was celebrated on Mithra day of Mithra month or Tiri festival (Tiragan) was celebrated on Tiri day of the Tiri month.
Cyrus the great tagalog?
cyrus the greatCyrus was born between 590 and 580 BC, either in Media or, more probably, in Persis, the modern Fars province of Iran. The meaning of his name is in dispute, for it is not known whether it was a personal name or a throne name given to him when he became a ruler. It is noteworthy that after the Achaemenian empire the name does not appear again in sources relating to Iran, which may indicate some special sense of the name.Most scholars agree, however, that Cyrus the Great was at least the second of the name to rule in Persia. One cuneiform text in Akkadian--the language of Mesopotamia (present-day Iraq) in the pre-Christian era--asserts he was theson of Cambyses, great king, king of Anshan, grandson of Cyrus, great king, king of Anshan, descendant of Teispes, great king, king of Anshan, of a family [which] always [exercised] kingship.In any case, it is clear that Cyrus came from a long line of ruling chiefs.The most important source for his life is the Greek historian Herodotus. The idealized biography by Xenophon is a work for the edification of the Greeks concerning the ideal ruler, rather than a historical treatise. It does, however, indicate the high esteem in which Cyrus was held, not only by his own people, the Persians, but also by the Greeks and others. Herodotus says that the Persians called Cyrus their father, while later Achaemenian rulers were not so well regarded. The story of the childhood of Cyrus, as told by Herodotus with echoes in Xenophon, may be called a Cyrus legend since it obviously follows a pattern of folk beliefs about the almost superhuman qualities of the founder of a dynasty. Similar beliefs also exist about the founders of later dynasties throughout the history of Iran. According to the legend, Astyages, the king of the Medes and overlord of the Persians, gave his daughter in marriage to his vassal in Persis, a prince called Cambyses. From this marriage Cyrus was born. Astyages, having had a dream that the baby would grow up to overthrow him, ordered Cyrus slain. His chief adviser, however, instead gave the baby to a shepherd to raise. When he was 10 years old, Cyrus, because of his outstanding qualities, was discovered by Astyages, who, in spite of the dream, was persuaded to allow the boy to live. Cyrus, when he reached manhood in Persis, revolted against his maternal grandfather and overlord. Astyages marched against the rebel, but his army deserted him and surrendered to Cyrus in 550 BC
Who invented the first flagpole?
The usage of flags spread from India and China, where they were almost certainly invented, to neighboring Burma, Siam, and southeastern Asia.The Persians used Derafsh Kaviani as the flag, at the time of Achaemenian dynasty at 550-330 B.C. Afterwards it was used in different look by the late Sassanid era (224-651). It was also representative of the Sassanid state-Ērānshāhr, the "Kingdom of Iran"-and may so be considered to have been the first "national flag" of Iran.Originally, the standards of the Roman legions were not flags, but symbols such as the eagle of Augustus Caesar's Xth legion; this graphic of the eagle would be placed on a staff for the standard-bearer to hold up during battle. But a military unit from Dacia had for a standard a dragon with a flexible tail which would move in the wind; the legions copied this, and eventually all the legions had physically flexible standards-the modern-day flag.During the Middle Ages, flags were used for a variety of purposes including: identification of members of nobility, guilds, cities, religious worship, and for use during battles. In battle, flags were used by military companies for identification on the field and relaying of strategic instructions. Though not always, flags could identify individual leaders: in Europe, monarchs andknights; in Japan, the samurai; in China, the generals under the imperial army; and in Mexico, the Aztec alliances.From the era of sailing vessels onwards, it has been customary (and later a legal requirement) for ships to carry flags designating their nationality; these flags eventually evolved into the national flags and maritime flags of today. Flags also became the preferred means of communications at sea, resulting in various systems of flag signals; see, International maritime signal flags.As European knights were replaced by centralized armies, flags became the means to identify not just nationalities but also individual military units. Flags became objects to be captured or defended. Eventually these flags posed too much of a practical danger to those carrying them, and by World War I these were withdrawn from the battlefields, and have since been used only at ceremonial occasions.
Was Pakistan rarely part of present day region of Republic of India?
1. Indus Valley Civilization: 3000-1500 B.C. i.e. about 1500 yrs. Independent, separate from modern India. 2. Aryan period: 1500-522 B.C. i.e. about 978 yrs. Independent, separate from modern India. 3. Small semi-independent states: 522-326 B.C. i.e. about 196 yrs. Under the suzerainty of Iran's Kayani (Achaemenian) Empire. 4. Conquered by Alexander and remained under his successor: 326-300 B.C. i.e. about 26 yrs. Under Greek rulers, not part of India. 5. Province of Mauryan Empire which included Afghanistan: 300-200 B.C. i.e. about 100 yrs. Part of India, mostly Buddhist rule. 6. Graeco-Bactrian period: 200-100 B.C. i.e. about 100 yrs. Independent, not part of India. 7. Saka-Parthian period: 100 B.C.- 70 A.D. i.e. about 170 yrs. Independent, separate from India. 8. Kushan rule (1st phase): 70-250 A.D. i.e. about 180 yrs. Pakistan-based kingdom ruled over major portion of north India. 9. Kushan rule (2nd phase): 250-450 A.D. i.e. about 200 yrs. Independent, separate from India. 10. White Huns and allied tribes (1st phase): 450-650 A.D. i.e. about 200 yrs. Pakistan-based kingdoms ruled over parts of north India. 11. White Huns (2nd phase--- mixed with other races): 650-1010 A.D. i.e. about 360 yrs. Independent Rajput-Brahmin Kingdoms, not part of India. 12. Ghaznavids: 1010-1187 A.D. i.e. 177 yrs. Part of Ghaznavid empire, separate from India. 13. Ghorid and Qubacha periods: 1187-1227 A.D. i.e. about 40 yrs. Independent, not part of India. 14. Muslim period (Slave dynasty, Khiljis, Tughlaqs, Syeds, Lodhis, Suris and Mughals): 1227-1739 A.D. i.e. about 512 yrs. Under north India based MUSLIM govts. 15. Nadir Shah and Abdali periods: 1739-1800 A.D. i.e. about 61 yrs. Iranian and Afghan suzerainty, not part of India. 16. Sikh rule (in Punjab, NWFP and Kashmir), Talpur rule in Sind, Khanate of Kalat in Baluchistan: 1800-1848 A.D. i.e. about 48 yrs. Independent states, not part of India. 17. British rule: 1848-1947 A.D. i.e. about 99 yrs (1843-1947 in Sind). Part of India under FOREIGN rule. 18. Muslim rule under the nomenclature of Pakistan: 1947-present. Independent sovereign state, not integral part of India. The above table reveals that during the 5,500 years of Pakistan's known history, this country was part of India for a total period of 711 yrs of which 512 yrs were covered by the MUSLIM periods and about 100 years each by the Mauryan (mostly BUDDHIST) and British (CHRISTIAN) periods. Can anybody agree with the Indian 'claim' that Pakistan was part of India and that Independence was unnatural? It hardly needs much intelligence to understand that Pakistan always had her back towards India and face towards the countries on her west. This is true both commercially and culturally.
What various languages is the Arabic language made up of?
Answer AI want to abbreviate as much as possible, but really it's a very wide topic . First & foremost Arabic language is an independent language & it's never made up of other languages !!!On the contrary , many experts tend to believe that the Arabic language is the mother of all languages. A strong evidence that proves this openion is the too much similar words that are found in Arabic & many other languages worldwide, for example in Turkish,Indian, Persian (which also uses the same Arabic script).In Maltese, the language of the island of Malta,which is a hybird mixture of Arabic & Italian & written in Latin charachters is another example.Arabic has also made important contributions to a number of Western languages , mainly Portuguese & Spanish.Such words in common English usage as: arsenal,algebra,alcohol,cotton,sugar,rice,lemon ,are only few of the many words found in Western languages that are either of Arabic origin or have been transmitted to the West through the medium of Arabic.Arabic has evolved considerably since the seventh century when the Arab conquerors set out to build a vast empire ,which soon stretched from the Indus River in the east to the Atlantic ocean in the West,& from the Arabian sea in the south to the confines of Turkey & the Caucasus in the north.Hardly any language seems capable of exercising over the minds of its users such irresistable influence as Arabic. Even in modern times,anyone who has witnessed a public address in an Arab setting will soon realize the powerful -almost magical- effect of the language on the audiance. It's a very elegant great & wide language & those who speak it do know what I mean. Also, it's a very wide & rich language with too many roots comparing to other languages worldwide.Despite its huge variety, Arabs say that their language is of no exact synonyms , this is a clue for how much expressful it is !Consequently, Muslims in general & Arabs in particular have long regarded Arabic asa God-Given language, unique in beauty & majesty. It's the language of several roles :- As a medium of artistic & correct expressions.- As an instrument of Religion.- As a medium of culture.- As a mainstay of contemporary nationalism.After all , no wonder why Allah (God) has chosen it to be the language of the Holy Quran?Remember that each prophet came with a miracle ,granted to him by Allah,in something that his people skilled at and famous for ,so that this will increase the challenge & consequently entrance those people & pushing them to faith.certainly the main miracle for the Prophet Muhammad PBUH is the Holy Quran which is more than amazing in its fluency & majesty & many things (such as its science also ,which is addressing scientists whatever their tongue is)& Arabs weren't & aren't & won't dare to face this miracle i,e the Holy Quran....I wanted to say that this is indirectly another proof for the fluency of Arabs & their language ... I hope that I've succeeded in clarifying the point & for more & more information read in history, it's full of stories about the magical genius Arabic language.Answer BAllah (God) has chosen it to be the language of the Holy Quran because Islam raise from Saudi Arabia and they didn't have proper knowledge of reading and writing. (in any other languages). And before Islam there was the empire of Achaemenian which their main language was "Pahlavi" and Arabic and Persian made from it. Plus, There are 4 more letters in Persian which is one of the differences between Persian and Arabic.Answer C (Hint on Answer B)I afraid I don't get the point in Answer B. Firstly, It is already well known that in the early centuries you hardly find people knowing more than one energy any where even with the Romans and the Greeks who were the holders of known civilizations. So, it is very logic and usual that the Arabs were at that time knowing only their own language. They are not exceptions of other parts of the world. However, the Arabs at that were in much better cultural position than neighboring lands because they were mainly working in trade and this allowed them to be familiar with the languages and cultures of many other countries and empires.Secondly, it was God wisdom to put His Islam message within the Arabs, as the starting point for future world spread. This God wisdom, from my own view point, is attributed to two reasons:the first is that the Arabs were very much proud of their language and of their superiority in Arabic literature and poetry. They were holding periodical literature and poetry competing festivals. God liked to have Quran as prophet Muhammad miracle by Quran special rhythm as challenge to their language mastering.the second is that the Arabs were not belonging to any of the superpowers/ civilizations at that time. Accordingly, the future rise of the Islamic civilization, that Allah the All-knowing is knowing in advance its future occurrence, would be absolutely attributed to Islam motive power and not to other former civilizations.
What are the origins of India Hindu Hinduism and Ancient Pakistan?
"Hindu/India" (derived from the word "Sindhu" in present day Pakistan --- by the way, the people of Sindhu continue to call themselves "Sindhis" and not "Hindus/Indians") was exclusively the foreign geographic term for Indus Valley (Pakistan region) in ancient times. It had nothing to do with the religion of Hinduism nor the region of present day Republic of India. This is proven in the Achaemenian inscriptions at Persepolis and Greek texts like those of Herodotus. It was many centuries later that the term "Hind/India" was used by some foreigners to further encompass much of Southern Asia, again as a geographic term having no religious or national meaning. The broadening of this term's usage was no different than how the word "Farangi" (derived from the word "Franks/France") became the term for all Europeans used by Middle Easterners (and South Asians) during the Middle Ages due to French interaction (Crusaders) with them. Indus Valley is located at the entering point (from west) into South Asia, thus its geographic term was later used by a few foreign visitors and invaders for the whole region. However, others used 'Hind' for present day north India and 'Sindh' for present day Pakistan. The bottomline is that the term/word "Hind/Hindu/India" was foreign (for their own references), and had no religious or national meaning. It was no different than how the words "Africa" and "America" are used --- i.e. foreign geographic terms encompassing many different peoples and religions. Not a single South Asian text/inscription (Vedic, Buddhist, Brahmanic, Dravidic, etc.) mentions any word "Hindu/Hinduism/India". It was only with the arrival of Muslim invaders (Ghorids --- 12th century AD) that the foreign term "Hindu/Hindustan" was imposed in South Asia to denote its ruled subjects and lands. It was also starting from this period that the word "Hindu" started to gain a religious color. It was easy for the new invaders to differentiate their religion from the countless local ones with just a single word. Later on, with the arrival of the British, their introduced term "Hinduism" became widely in use. The foreign word "Hinduism" simply became the term for many different local religions of South Asia. Hinduism is a meaningless term and concept in the sense that it can include any thing or nothing. Contradictory or opposing aspects are quite common in it, and as quoted by many scholars it cannot be truly defined. Hinduism as a "civilization of Hindus" is another hollow definition in the same way "Western civilization" can include many different religions, peoples, nations, regions, etc. To say "Hinduism" has been evolving since ancient times is a farce as the term/word itself has recent origins, and humans and their ideas/beliefs have been evolving since time-immemorial all over the world. For example, if Christianity has some influences from Roman Paganism it does not mean that Christianity evolved from Roman Paganism because the word/term "Christianity" was invented later on and Christianity's beliefs/practices are by large distinct. As far as present-day India is concerned, the fact is it was created one day after Pakistan's creation! Pakistan was created by the Pakistanis themselves. On the other hand, the British colonialists conquered the various countries/peoples/kingdoms of South Asia and for the ease of administration consolidated them into a single unit called "India". No country with such name or/and size existed prior to its British creation. With the departure of British, their colonies were divided with present day India being a direct descendent of that British creation. In the words of Winston Churchill, "India is no more a country than the Equator". It is no wonder there are many separatist movements in India, having many distinct nations, races, languages, cultures, religions, histories, etc... A Tamil is racially as different from a Kashmiri as is an Ethiopian from an Italian. A Naga is culturally as different from an Bihari as is a Chinese from a Argentinian. A Gujarati is linguistically as different from an Andhra (Telugu) as is a German from an Arab. Such extreme differences are common place among the so called Indians with barely any unifying factors. On the other hand, Pakistanis have all the commonality being linguistically Indo-Iranian, racially mostly Caucasoid, geographically based around Indus Valley, sharing a common history/culture, and adhering to the faith of Islam. Pakistan might be a few decades old, but the land and its people have a history dating back to thousands of years. Indus Valley Civilization is their heritage, the continuity is obvious in many aspects of their culture and race, absorbing and/or adopting the many different waves of migrants/invaders throughout the centuries.Pakistanis are a blend of their heritage of Harappans, Rig Vedic Aryans, Persians, Greeks, Scythians, Parthians, Kushans, Hephthalites, Arabs,Turks, and Moguls. Pakistan---the land and people of Indus directly inherits one of the greatest ancient civilizations of the world, just the same way present-day Iraq, Greece, and Egypt (all three countries also recently created) inherits their own great ancient civilizations. It is irrelevant that the descendents of Harappans are now mostly Muslims! Similarly, descendents of ancient Mesopotamians and Egyptians are also now mostly Muslims, and descendents of ancients Greeks and Romans are now mostly Christians! And also, just because the once Christian Syrians are now mostly Muslims, it does not mean that Nigerian Christians can claim the heritage of Syria today! Just because China was mostly Buddhist it does not mean that Chinese civilization is part of Indian heritage. Same logic applies between Pakistan's Buddhist past and today's Hindu India. Or just because once Syria and Spain were briefly united under the ancient Romans and Arabs it does not mean Syria's heritage belongs to Spain. Same logic applies between Pakistan and India under the rule of British, Turko-Afghan Muslims, etc. And just because today a country is named "South Africa" it does not mean it can claim the heritage of all southern Africa. Same logic applies between Pakistan and India's monopoly over the British geographic/colonial term/word "India". The region of Pakistan was never part of present day region of India except for 100 years under the Mauryans, 522 years under the Muslims, and 100 years under the British. These are historical facts that no one can deny! Most Indians have no right to claim the heritage of Pakistan (Indus Valley Civilization, Rig Vedic Aryans, Gandharan Civilization, etc.) because the region was rarely part of India, with its mostly distinct religion, culture, language, and race since ancient times! Why should a Tamil (Indian) claim the heritage of a Punjabi (Pakistani)? Or why should a Vishnuvite of Bengal (Indian) claim the heritage of Kalasha's Kafirs of KPK (Pakistanis) or Buddhist ancestors of Sindhi Muslims (Pakistanis)? And let's say, even if the ancestor of a Pakistani was Shaivite, that does not mean that Shaivites of Indonesia can claim the heritage of Pakistan. Or, if Pakistan region/people were once mostly Buddhist, it does not mean that Buddhist Japanese are the same people as the Pakistanis.
