north west
b
knee
opposite direction.
extention
If two forces are in the same direction, then their resultant is also in the same direction, and its magnitude is the sum of the two components' magnitudes.
This may not be the most efficient method but ... Let the three angle be A, B and C. Then note that A + B + C = 20+32+38 = 90 so that C = 90-A+B. Therefore, sin(C) = sin[(90-(A+B) = cos(A+B) and cos(C) = cos[(90-(A+B) = sin(A+B). So that tan(C) = sin(C)/cos(C) = cos(A+B) / sin(A+B) = cot(A+B) Now, tan(A+B) = [tan(A)+tan(B)] / [1- tan(A)*tan(B)] so cot(A+B) = [1- tan(A)*tan(B)] / [tan(A)+tan(B)] The given expressin is tan(A)*tan(B) + tan(B)*tan(C) + tan(C)*tan(A) = tan(A)*tan(B) + [tan(B) + tan(A)]*cot(A+B) substituting for cot(A+B) gives = tan(A)*tan(B) + [tan(B) + tan(A)]*[1- tan(A)*tan(B)]/[tan(A)+tan(B)] cancelling [tan(B) + tan(A)] and [tan(A) + tan(B)], which are equal, in the second expression. = tan(A)*tan(B) + [1- tan(A)*tan(B)] = 1
tan (A-B) + tan (B-C) + tan (C-A)=0 tan (A-B) + tan (B-C) - tan (A-C)=0 tan (A-B) + tan (B-C) = tan (A-C) (A-B) + (B-C) = A-C So we can solve tan (A-B) + tan (B-C) = tan (A-C) by first solving tan x + tan y = tan (x+y) and then substituting x = A-B and y = B-C. tan (x+y) = (tan x + tan y)/(1 - tan x tan y) So tan x + tan y = (tan x + tan y)/(1 - tan x tan y) (tan x + tan y)tan x tan y = 0 So, tan x = 0 or tan y = 0 or tan x = - tan y tan(A-B) = 0 or tan(B-C) = 0 or tan(A-B) = - tan(B-C) tan(A-B) = 0 or tan(B-C) = 0 or tan(A-B) = tan(C-B) A, B and C are all angles of a triangle, so are all in the range (0, pi). So A-B and B-C are in the range (- pi, pi). At this point I sketched a graph of y = tan x (- pi < x < pi) By inspection I can see that: A-B = 0 or B-C = 0 or A-B = C-B or A-B = C-B +/- pi A = B or B = C or A = C or A = C +/- pi But A and C are both in the range (0, pi) so A = C +/- pi has no solution So A = B or B = C or A = C A triangle ABC has the property that tan (A-B) + tan (B-C) + tan (C-A)=0 if and only if it is isosceles (or equilateral).
tan A says nothing about tan B without further information.
Consider any two points on the vector, P = (a, b) and Q = (c, d). And lext x be the angle made by the vector with the positive direction of the x-axis. Then either a = c, so that the vector is vertical and its direction is straight up or a - c is non-zero. In that case, tan(x) = (b - d)/(a - c) or x = tan-1[(b - d)/(a - c)]
F = mB - mB =0 a bar magnet is placed in a uniform magnetic field B, its poles +m and -m experience force mB and mB along and opposite to the direction of magnetic field B.
B: -tan(25)
tan a=1/2 tan b=1/3 find tan (a-b)
cot(15)=1/tan(15) Let us find tan(15) tan(15)=tan(45-30) tan(a-b) = (tan(a)-tan(b))/(1+tan(a)tan(b)) tan(45-30)= (tan(45)-tan(30))/(1+tan(45)tan(30)) substitute tan(45)=1 and tan(30)=1/√3 into the equation. tan(45-30) = (1- 1/√3) / (1+1/√3) =(√3-1)/(√3+1) The exact value of cot(15) is the reciprocal of the above which is: (√3+1) /(√3-1)
If there is a repulsion between A and N then A is North pole and B is South pole of the horse shoe magnet. If B and N repel each other the B is north and A is south of the horse shoe magnet.
tan(b) = x/sqrt(y^2-x^2)
If there is a repulsion between A and N then A is North pole and B is South pole of the horse shoe magnet. If B and N repel each other the B is north and A is south of the horse shoe magnet.
That's the magnitude of 'Displacement'.If you want the complete 'Displacement', you also have to includethe direction from Point-A to Point-B.