20 06 2010
Please F Y B com form 2011 - 2012
Please F Y B com form 2011 - 2012
no
Type your answer here... yes
30 June
63227
a function y=f(x) is said to be reflexive if x=f(y). generally of the form :- y= (ax+b)/(cx-a) where a,b,c are constants. ex:- y=(3x+5)/(4x-3)
The F-B-I- Files - 1998 Policias Y Ladrones was released on: USA: 26 February 2006
As a university professor, this is a common question i receive. The answer is quite simple. By analyzing the dividend production quantity of the y b, one can quantitatively derive the answer. A little tip: the answer should range between .001 and 3.00. Anything outside of that range, and you need to redo the procedure
No. In general, a function f (from set A to set B) has an inverse if, for any elements a and b in A [f(a) and f(b) in B], f(a) = f(b) imples that a = b. Strictly speaking then, y = x2 does not have an inverse because each value of x2 (except 0) maps on to 2 distinct values of y. This does not accord with the definition of a function. For example, f(-2) = f(2) = 4 but -2 is not 2 so sqrt is technically NOT a function.
f(x) or y = 6x + 4Well, y= mx+ b This function is simplified already.